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NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
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1. Visceral protein malnutrition that tends to occur in Developing Countries during the weaning of children from breast milk is known as
(A) Anabolism
(B) Anasarca
(C) Cachexia
(D) Kwashiorkor
Answer: (D)
2. The current recommendation for the Dietary intake for fats in adults is to have intake of
(A) 10% of total daily calories
(B) 30% of total daily calories
(C) 65 grams per day
(D) 75 grams per day
Answer: (B)
3. Of the following environmental hazards the only one categorised as a Non-Threshold hazard is
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Heat
(C) Ionising Radiation
(D) Noise
Answer: (C)
4. The Ames test is used to
(A) Determine Antibiotic susceptibility
(B) Adequacy of Ventilation in a room
(C) Estimate the Carcinogenic potential of a chemical
(D) Quantification of Radiation exposure
Answer: (C)
5. The indoor Air pollutant of greatest public health importance is
(A) Environmental Tobacco Smoke
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Aromatic amines
Answer: (A)
6. The administration of Human Immunoglobulin after exposure of Hepatitis B is an example of
(A) Active Immunity
(B) Passive Immunity
(C) Health Promotion
(D) Herd Immunity
Answer: (B)
7. Which of the following vaccines would most likely to be dangerous to a person with Immune deficiency?
(A) Diptheria Vaccine
(B) Hepatitis B Vaccine
(C) Measles Vaccine
(D) Typhoid Vaccine
Answer: (B)
8. A modified influenza vaccine must be produced every year because of change of nature of influenza virus. Which of the following study design is appropriate to test the efficiency of the vaccine for a particular year?
(A) A Randomised field trial
(B) A Retrospective cohort study
(C) Review of data from previous years
(D) Routine surveillance
Answer: (B)
9. The principle reason for extending the administration of Measles vaccine till 15 months is
(A) Measles infection is less severe in infants.
(B) Infants are immune to Measles.
(C) Maternal antibody inactivates the measles vaccine in infants.
(D) Measles vaccine being a live vaccine can cause severe reaction in infants.
Answer: (C)
10. New a cellular vaccine is available to prevent, which of the following diseases?
(A) Lyme disease
(B) Measles
(C) Pertussis
(D) Rubella
Answer: (C)
11. An appropriate example of secondary prevention is all except
(A) Treatment of Diabetic nephropathy
(B) Detection and treatment of hypertension
(C) Percutaneous Tran’s luminal Coronary Angioplasty
(D) Vaccination against Hepatitis B
Answer: (B)
12. Data’s obtained through screening at Health meals are of little value because of
(A) Bias in sampling due to self-selection.
(B) Most conditions are rare in random samples.
(C) False positive results are common.
(D) Possibility of missing co-morbid conditions quite frequent.
Answer: (A)
13. The modifiable risk factors of coronary heart disease are all except
(A) Smoking
(B) Physical Inactivity
(C) Environmental factors
(D) High blood cholesterol
Answer: (C)
14. Alcohol has been implicated as a modifiable risk factor in all except
(A) Motor vehicle injuries
(B) Cancers
(C) Cirrohosis of liver
(D) Heart disease
Answer: (B)
15. The following are all clinical risk factors for coronary artery disease except:
(A) Hypertension
(B) High blood cholesterol
(C) Smoking
(D) Type A personality
Answer: (C)
16. The epidemiology of Hepatitis A virus is accurately described by which of the following statement?
(A) Food and water borne epidemics are common.
(B) Health care workers are more at risk.
(C) Epidemic in susceptible young adults is common.
(D) Epidemic rarely occurs in temperate climates.
Answer: (A)
17. Health services directed towards reducing infant mortality rate have the greatest effect in reducing all except
(A) Neonatal Mortality
(B) Perinatal Mortality
(C) Post Neonatal Mortality
(D) Early Neonatal Mortality
Answer: (B)
18. Spot maps indicates
(A) Time Distribution
(B) Person Distribution
(C) Place Distribution
(D) Sex Distribution
Answer: (C)
19. Which is an insecticide of vegetable origin?
(A) Pyrethrum
(B) Abate
(C) BHC
(D) Propoxur
Answer: (A)
20. All of the following are examples of geographic comparisons for diseases except:
(A) Between Countries
(B) Between States or Provinces
(C) Between different Age groups
(D) Urban Versus Rural areas
Answer: (C)
21. Which of the following is recommended for assignment by randomization in a clinical trial?
(A) Assignment of patients by chart number
(B) Coin flipping
(C) Use of random number table
(D) Card shifting
Answer: (C)
22. In a clinical trial of a new drug for peptic ulcer, the drug or a placebo is randomly given to patients for 6 weeks. The doctor and the patient isunaware of the medication given. This is an example of
(A) Single Blind
(B) Double Blind
(C) Triple Blind
(D) Case-Control Blind
Answer: (B)
23. The best type of epidemiological study to prove causation is
(A) Cohort studies
(B) Cross sectional studies
(C) Case control studies
(D) Randomized control trials
Answer: (D)
24. The prevalence role of a disease can be increased by all of the factors except
(A) Increase in new cases or incidence.
(B) Screening of susceptible persons.
(C) Improve reporting.
(D) Increase in cure rates.
Answer: (D)
25. The best example of a pathogen losing its virulence during transmission from man to man is
(A) Vibrio Cholera
(B) Group A Beta Haemolytic Streptococcus
(C) Lassa Virus
(D) Poliomyelitis Virus
Answer: (C)
26. The disease specific immunity is produced by all except
(A) Toxocara Canis
(B) Salmonella Typhi
(C) Measles virus
(D) Viral hepatitis
Answer: (A)
27. The following infections can be transmitted vertically including via placenta or in prenatal period except:
(A) Hepatitis B virus
(B) Measles
(C) Rubella
(D) Diptheria
Answer: (B)
28. Midyear population refers to population as on
(A) 1st January
(B) 31st March
(C) 1st April
(D) 1st July
Answer: (D)
29. One of the important characteristics of influenza pandemics to
(A) Secular trend
(B) Waxing and waning of immunity
(C) Antigenic shift and drift
(D) Geographic stagnation
Answer: (C)
30. BCG vaccine in India is manufactured at
(A) Central Research Institute, Kasouli
(B) Research Laboratory Guindy, Tamil Nadu
(C) Pasteur Institute, Conoor Tamil Nadu
(D) Haffekeine Institute, Bombay (Mumbai) Maharashtra
Answer: (C)
31. The mean incubation period of Tetanus is
(A) 7 – 14 days
(B) 1 – 7 days
(C) 7 – 10 days
(D) 7 – 28 days
Answer: (A)
32. Of the following indices of Malaria, which one provides an idea of recent transmission?
(A) Spleen Rate
(B) Infant Parasite Rate
(C) Parasite Density Rate
(D) Proportional Case Rate
Answer: (B)
33. The primary series in injectable polio vaccine (IPV) consists of
(A) Two doses
(B) Five doses
(C) Four doses
(D) Three doses
Answer: (D)
34. All of the following are characteristics of staphylococcal food poisoning except:
(A) Symptoms usually begins 2 to 4 hours after ingestion
(B) The temperature of the patient is usually 101 0F to 102 0F
(C) Death in Normal individuals are rare
(D) Diarrohea, if present may be severe
Answer: (B)
35. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases can be detected by dark field microscopy?
(A) Gonorrohea
(B) Granuloma Inguinale
(C) Syphilis
(D) Lympho Granuloma Venereum
Answer: (C)
36. A person is labelled blind for examined eye when the visual acuity in that eye is less than
(A) 6/18
(B) 6/60
(C) 1/60
(D) 3/60
Answer: (D)
37. The screening for gestational diabetes is done by
(A) Blood sugar
(B) Urine Examination
(C) Glycosylated Haemoglobin
(D) Eye Examination
Answer: (B)
38. World’s “No Tobacco Day” is observed on
(A) 7th April
(B) 31st May
(C) 1st December
(D) 11th July
Answer: (B)
39. Epidemic Dropsy is caused due to
(A) Beta Oxyl Amino Alanine (BOAA)
(B) Aflatoxin
(C) Sanguanarine
(D) Strychnine
Answer: (C)
40. The occupational health hazard of working with Isopropyl Alcohol is cancer of
(A) Colon
(B) Nasal sinuses
(C) Stomach
(D) Skin
Answer: (B)
41. Mild anaemia due to interference with Haem synthesis is seen as a result of occupational exposure to
(A) Chromium
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Carbon materials
Answer: (B)
42. Which of the following occupational agents is usually associated with lung cancer?
(A) Asbestos
(B) Nickel
(C) Arsenic
(D) Chromium
Answer: (A)
43. The standardised Mortality Rate or SMR is a method of
(A) Direct standardization
(B) Indirect standardization
(C) Method of estimating crude death rate
(D) Method of calculating age specific death rate
Answer: (B)
44. The most important cause of maternal mortality in India is
(A) Anaemia
(B) Sepsis
(C) Haemmorage
(D) Obstructed labour
Answer: (C)
45. The following are examples of Qualitative Tables except:
(A) One way table
(B) Higher order table
(C) Frequency table
(D) Two way table
Answer: (C)
46. The best statement which describes a histogram is as follows:
(A) Bars may be divided into two or more parts.
(B) The bars are joined together.
(C) Bars have uniform colour or shade.
(D) Bars have different shades.
Answer: (B)
47. The best statement describing a frequency polygon is
(A) Shows scatter of data
(B) shows lowest and highest values
(C) Joining the dots gives a curve with many angles
(D) Explains trend over a period of time
Answer: (C)
48. The followings are measures of central tendency in statistics except:
(A) Mean
(B) Range
(C) Mode
(D) Median
Answer: (B)
49. The best statement describing a Quantile is
(A) least influenced by extremes of values.
(B) Made by plotting the cumulative frequencies against the end points of corresponding class intervals.
(C) Values of a variable in an ordered series.
(D) It can be used to identify the middle value.
Answer: (C)
50. The following are measures of Dispersion except:
(A) Range
(B) Mean Deviation
(C) Standard Deviation
(D) Median
Answer: (D)
51. For newly diagnosed sputum positive tuberculosis patients who receive treatment for less than a month and interrupt treatment for more than 8 weeks and are again found sputum positive, the regime to be followed is
(A) Continue category I
(B) Start category II
(C) Start category I afresh
(D) Extra one month intensive phase of category I
Answer: (C)
52. The amount of ORS solution required for a child during the first four hours may be calculated by setting the deficit at approximately:
(A) 25 ml. /kg. Body weight
(B) 50 ml. /kg. Body weight
(C) 75 ml. /kg. Body weight
(D) 100 ml. /kg. Body weight
Answer: (C)
53. All are transmitted by ticks except:
(A) KFD (Kyasanur Forest Disease)
(B) Indian Tick Typhus
(C) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)
(D) Endemic typhus
Answer: (D)
54. For wounds less than 6 hrs. Old, clean, non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage belongs to immunity Cat. B the treatment is (Cat. B Immunity means has had complete course of period on booster dose, more than 5 yrs ago and less than 10 years ago)
(A) No treatment required
(B) One dose of tetanus Toxoid required
(C) One dose of tetanus Toxoid + human tetanus immunoglobulin
(D) Complete course of tetanus Toxoid
Answer: (B)
55. The Fernandez reaction is considered positive if the diameter of red area is
(A) Greater than 10 mm
(B) Greater than 5 mm
(C) 5 – 10 mm
(D) Less than 5 mm
Answer: (A)
56. What is ‘Prudent diet’?
(A) Reduced salt intake
(B) Avoidance of alcohol
(C) Reduced salt intake + Avoidance of alcohol
(D) Reduced fat intake
Answer: (C)
57. The desired parameter to control hypertension is
(A) Ratio of cholesterol & HDL < 3.5
(B) HDL < 30 mg %
(C) Ratio of HDL &Cholesterol< 3.5
(D) Ratio of LDL & HDL < 3.5
Answer: (A)
58. Under vision 2020, the NGO eye hospitals come under
(A) Primary level
(B) Secondary level
(C) Tertiary level
(D) Not included under vision 2020
Answer: (B)
59. Yellow colour coding in IMNCI refers to
(A) Home Management
(B) Urgent referral
(C) Treatment at outpatient health facility
(D) Treatment at inpatient health facility
Answer: (C)
60. Injectable contraceptive is
(A) Cyclofem
(B) Gossypol
(C) Megastrol
(D) Mestranol
Answer: (A)
61. The growth chart used in India has
(A) Two reference curves
(B) Three reference curves
(C) Four reference curves
(D) Five reference curves
Answer: (C)
62. The daily requirement of iodine for adult is
(A) 75 microgram per day
(B) 100 microgram per day
(C) 125 microgram per day
(D) 150 microgram per day
Answer: (D)
63. The method of explaining and analysing the life of a social unit is known as
(A) Case study
(B) Field study
(C) Social study
(D) Communication
Answer: (A)
64. While collecting water from a tap for bacteriological examination
(A) Water should be collected immediately on opening the tap.
(B) Water should be allowed to flow waste for at least 2 minutes.
(C) Tap should be cleaned with a suitable disinfectant before opening.
(D) A tap in regular use should be flamed adequately before collecting samples.
Answer: (B)
65. Fumigation of rat burrows in India is widely done using
(A) Dichlorovas
(B) Diazinon
(C) Abate
(D) Calcium cyanide
Answer: (D)
66. The trend of the events with the passage of time is shown with
(A) Scatter diagram
(B) Frequency polygon
(C) Line diagram
(D) Bar chart
Answer: (C)
67. Elimination of private practice by government doctors was recommended by
(A) Chadah Committee
(B) Jungalwallah Committee
(C) Mukherjee Committee
(D) Srivastava Committee
Answer: (B)
68. Removal of susceptible children to houses of immune persons contributes
(A) Segregation
(B) Modified quarantine
(C) Absolute quarantine
(D) Isolation
Answer: (A)
69. The term ‘social medicine’ was coined by
(A) C.E.A. Winslow
(B) John Snow
(C) Yerushalmy
(D) Jules Guerin
Answer: (D)
70. In the International Death certificate
(A) The immediate cause of death is recorded in line C of part I
(B) The underlying cause of death is recorded in line C of part I
(C) The associated combined condition is recorded in line C of Part I
(D) The underlying cause of death is recorded in part II.
Answer: (B)
71. The population of a village at the end of 2008 was 4,800 of which 20 had tuberculosis. At the end of the year 2009, the population of the village was 5,000 and 5 new cases of tuberculosis were detected and 2 died due to the disease. The incidence and case fatality of TB in the year 2009 were
(A) 1.1 / 1000 and 10
(B) 1 / 1000 and 8
(C) 5 / 1000 and 0.08
(D) 0.5 / 1000 and 4
Answer: (B)
72. Trial of folate treatment or supplementation before conception to prevent occurrence of neural tube defects is an example of
(A) Preventive trial
(B) Cessation experiments
(C) Clinical trials
(D) Risk factor trials
Answer: (C)
73. The presence of an infectious agent on the surface of the body is known as
(A) Infection
(B) Contamination
(C) Infestation
(D) Contagion
Answer: (B)
74. The transmission chain in schistosomiasis
(A) Man – Snail – Fish – Man
(B) Man – Snail – Man
(C) Man – Snail – Crab – Man
(D) Man – Cyclops – Fish – Man
Answer: (B)
75. Under RNTCP, which statement is not correct?
(A) Active case finding is pursued.
(B) Compulsory two sputum examinations are required to make a diagnosis.
(C) One senior TB laboratory supervisor is appointed for five microscopy centres.
(D) Case finding is passive.
Answer: (A)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Social Medicine And Community Health Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Social Medicine and Community Health was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
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UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
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| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
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