NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Law, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.
You must have NTA UGC NET Law Solved Question Papers along with the latest Law Syllabus to enhance your semester exam preparation.
Here we have provided you with the complete guide on NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June.
NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June
NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Law exam.
Practicing these NTA UGC NET Law paper 3 Previous Year Question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June.
1. In E.P. Royappa case which of the Supreme Court Judge propounded the new concept of Equality as “Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be ‘crippled, combined and confined’ within traditional and doctrinaire limits”?
(A) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagawati
(C) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(D) Justice O.P. Chinnapa Reddy
Answer: (B)
2. The State shall make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief is found
(A) As a part of the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
(B) As a Fundamental Right under Art 21 of the Constitution of India.
(C) As a Directive Principle of the State Policy.
(D) As a Fundamental Duty of the State.
Answer: (C)
3. Fundamental duties under Part IVA was inserted in the Constitution by
(A) 17th Amendment
(B) 25th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
Answer: (C)
4. The powers of the President of India are
(A) Supra-Constitutional
(B) Beyond the Constitution
(C) In accordance with the Parliament of India
(D) In accordance with the Constitution of India
Answer: (D)
5. Which one of the following has been considered as authority of power?
(A) The Constitution of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The Parliament of India
(D) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: (A)
6. In which of the following judgmentsit was held that according to Art. 226, Courts are flooded with large number of PIL, so it is desirable for Courts to filter out frivolous petitions and dismiss them with costs?
(A) Deepak Sharma vs. Vineeta Sharma
(B) Dharampal vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(C) Holicow Pictures Pvt. Ltd. vs. Premchandra Mishra
(D) M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
Answer: (C)
7. A resolution for the revocation of the proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by
(A) Ten members of Lok Sabha
(B) One-fifth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
(C) One-tenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
(D) One-fifteenth of the total membership of the Lok Sabha.
Answer: (C)
8. Answer the following using the codes given below:
Administrative Law deals with:
(i) Composition, powers and functions of the administrative authorities.
(ii) Procedures to be followed by the administrative authorities in the exercise of their powers and functions.
(iii) Methods of control of powers of the administrative authorities.
(iv) Remedies available to a person in case of violation of his rights by the administrative authorities.
Code:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: (D)
9. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation:
Assertion (A): One of the principles of natural justice is, ‘No man shall be judge in his own cause’.
Reason (R): Principles of natural just ice require fair play in action.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
10. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) A.K. Kraipak vs. Union of India (i) Post decisional hearing
(b) ManakLal vs. Dr. Prem Chand (ii) Personal bias
(c) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (iii) Pecuniary bias
(d) Olga Tellis vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation (iv) Reasonable opportunity of hearing
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Answer: (C)
11. Answer the following using the codes given below:
Which of the following doctrines were developed by the Court to control the administrative actions?
(i) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel.
(ii) Doctrine of Legitimate Expectations.
(iii) Doctrine of Separation of Power and Rule of Law.
(iv) Judicial Activism.
Codes:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: (D)
12. Answer the following using the codes given below:
In which of the following grounds the judicial review of an administrative action be made?
(i) Abuse of discretion
(ii) Mala fide or bad faith
(iii) Irrelevant consideration
(iv) Unreasonableness
Codes:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer: (D)
13. A writ of mandamus will not lie against
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Local authorities
(D) Courts and Tribunals
Answer: (A)
14. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Bring the body before the Court (i) Writ of Mandamus
(b) Petitioner’s legal right to compel the performance of public duty (ii) Writ of Certiorari
(c) By what authority a person is holding the public post (iii) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(d) Action ofsubordinate Courtin violation of theprinciples ofnatural justice (iv) Writ of Quowarranto
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer: (B)
15. Which one of the following States has not yet established the institution of Lokayukta?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
16. “A legal person is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality.” Who said these words?
(A) Savigny
(B) Bentham
(C) Austin
(D) Salmond
Answer: (D)
17. “Pure theory of Law is an exercise in logic and not life.” This observation was made by
(A) Pound
(B) Savigny
(C) Maine
(D) Harold Laski
Answer: (D)
18. “Law is derived from social facts and not dependent on State authority but on social compulsion.” Who said this?
(A) Putchta
(B) Ehrlich
(C) Friedman
(D) Pound
Answer: (B)
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Sieuteretero out alierum non laedas: To use your own property as not to injure your neighbour’s right
(B) Re Legitima Portis: A person cannot dispose of his entire property
(C) Jus turtii: To set up title of a third person other than himself or the plaintiff
(D) Nec vi neccalurprecario: Possession must show to the competitor
Answer: (D)
20. Assertion (A): In India the distinction between legal and equitable ownership is not recognized.
Reason (R): The trustees are, subject to the law relating to trust and trustees, bound to carry out the trust according to the dictates of the maker of the trust.
Examine the above statements (A) and Reason (R) and select whether the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion using the codes given below:
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
21. The purpose theory is based on the assumption that “person is applicable only to human beings; they alone can be the subjects of rural relations”. Who developed this theory of Brinz in England?
(A) Barker
(B) Duguit
(C) Salmond
(D) Hoffman
Answer: (A)
22. “Ownership in its comprehensive signification denotes the relation between a person and any right that is vested in him. That which a man owns in this sense is in all cases a right.”
Who is the exponent of this theory?
(A) Miss Tay
(B) Maitland
(C) Salmond
(D) Fuller
Answer: (C)
23. “Legal rights are institutional rights to decisions in Courts. Institutions about justice presuppose a fundamental right, namely, the right to equality, which I call the right to equal concern and respect.”
Who propounded this theory in relation to natural rights?
(A) Dworkin
(B) Fuller
(C) Jerome Hall
(D) Professor Hart
Answer: (A)
24. Fill in the gap that is mostappropriate.
Whoever entices a girl child of less than 16 years has said to have caused kidnapping out of the keeping of the lawful ______.
(A) Parents
(B) Foster parents
(C) Adopted parents
(D) Guardians
Answer: (D)
25. Fill in the gap with the offence that the accused has committed. Whoever dishonestly uses any moveable property to his own advantage has committed the offence of ______.
(A) Breach of trust
(B) Wrongful gain
(C) Misappropriation
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
26. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Moral derangement is a state of will and turns to be the vehicle of vicious actions.
Reason II: Crime is committed under the influence of instructive and irresistible impulse.
Codes:
(A) Moral insanity or imbecility is not exempted from criminal liability as per Section 53 of IPC.
(B) Both I and II are correct statements to attract criminal liability as per Section 53 IPC as both are diabolical criminal conduct.
(C) Only by II criminal responsibility can be fixed but not with the help of I.
(D) Mc Naghten’s Rule can be applied in I but not in II.
Answer: (B)
27. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of given codes point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Consent of husband or wife of the victim does not grant immunity from the offence of bigamy.
Reason II: Sexual offence with the consent of one spouse does not fix liability for adultery.
Codes:
(A) I is correct, but not with the reason of II.
(B) I is correct, but with the support of II.
(C) II is only the correct proposition while I is void.
(D) II is valid when I is not admissible.
Answer: (A)
28. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: To establish a charge of conspiracy, knowledge about indulgence in an illegal act by certain legal means, is necessary.
Reason II: The normal rule is that when a particular unlawful use being intended has to be inferred from the chain ofactions.
Codes:
(A) I is the judicious cause of conspiracy, because II is the correct explanation.
(B) II is more appropriate explanation than merely fixing charge as per I.
(C) I is the correct proposition as II is optional.
(D) I is not correct because as per II there must be pre-meditation.
Answer: (A)
29. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Publishing a report of proceedings of a Court will not amount to defamation.
Reason II: It is an exception to the principle of defamation.
Codes:
(A) I is true, because II is the specific objective.
(B) I is true, but II is not the correct proposition.
(C) II is always true, because I isnot dependent.
(D) II is false, because I is always independent of criminal liability.
Answer: (A)
30. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below point out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Independently putting a person in fear of injury to another is extortion.
Reason II: It is an exception to the rule of delivering the valuable security.
Codes:
(A) I istrue, but II is not the correct statement.
(B) I is true, because II is the correct proposition.
(C) Both I and II are independent of proof.
(D) Both I and II are false.
Answer: (B)
31. Read Assertion I and Reason II and with the help of codes given below find out the correct explanation.
Assertion I: Disorder of mind which impairs the mental faculties is known as unsoundness of mind as such it acts as defence to a criminal charge.
Reason II: Insanity is the mental abnormality and when it impairs the cognitive faculty and if an act results during that period criminal liability could be exempted.
Codes:
(A) By I there is transgression of harmful acts while II refers to established rules of society for which no prosecution stands.
(B) Both I and II are correct explanations as per Section 84 of IPC.
(C) II is more precise while I isonly a supportive factor.
(D) The true test of I and II is to apply Mc Naghten’s Rule.
Answer: (B)
32. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, were passed by the Parliament under:
(A) Article 252 of the Constitutionof India.
(B) Article 253 of the Constitution of India.
(C) Article 250 of the Constitution of India.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (B)
33. Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court is famously known as the “Green Judge”?
(A) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyyar
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Justice Kuldip Singh
(D) Justice B.N. Kirpal
Answer: (C)
34. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India have been mostly used by the Supreme Court to protect environment?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 21
(C) Both Articles 21 and 32
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
35. What is the period of notice required to be served upon the Central Government for filing a criminal complaint by any person, under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
(A) Not less than 30 days
(B) Not less than 60 days
(C) Not less than 90 days
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
36. Which one of the following cases is considered as “High Water-mark case in Forest Protection” decided by the Supreme Court?
(A) Salebhai Mulla Mohmadali vs. State of Gujarat.
(B) T.N. Godavarman Tirumulkpad vs. Union of India.
(C) Narmada Bachao Andolan vs. Union of India.
(D) Samatha vs. State of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer: (B)
37. The Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 for the control of water pollution:
(A) On the request from States.
(B) Of his own.
(C) On the direction of United Nations.
(D) On the direction of Supreme Court.
Answer: (A)
38. Under which of the following Articleof the Constitution of India, theprovisions regarding duty of the State “to protect and improvement of environment and safeguard the forest and wildlife”, exist?
(A) Article 51(g)
(B) Article 47
(C) Article 48-A
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
39. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below write the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Under International law extradition is mostly a matter of bilateral treaties.
Reason (R): There is no general duty of States in respect of extradition of criminals.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
40. Which of the following case does not concern with the judgement that a non-recognized State cannot sue in the courts of the State which was not recognized?
(A) Russian Socialist Federated Soviet Republic vs. Cibraria.
(B) Guarantee Trust Company of New York vs. United States.
(C) U.S. vs. Pink.
(D) Bank of Ethiopia vs. National Bank of Egypt and Liquori.
Answer: (D)
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List – I List – II
(Name of the Case) (Principle Propounded)
(a) The Caroline case (i) Self- Defence
(b) The Nottebohm case (ii) Effective Nationality
(c) Re Castioni case (iii) Non- Extradition of Political Criminals
(d) U.S. vs. Rouscher (iv) Rule of Specialty
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (A)
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List – I List – II
(a) Australia and Prussiaexercised jointsovereignty over (i) New Helarides
(b) Great Britain and France exercised joint sovereignty over (ii) Schleswig Holstein Anenburg
(c) Great Britain exercised sovereignty over (iii) Germany
(d) In 1898 China leased the district of Kiaochow to (iv) Turkish Island
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer: (A)
43. Which of the following statements is correct? A de-facto government is government:
(A) Whose origin and existence is contrary to the Constitutional law of the State concerned and legality is challenged in International law.
(B) Whose origin and existence is in conformity with the Constitutional law of the State represented and whose legality is uncontested in International law.
(C) Which exercise control over a Foreign State?
(D) Which has been forced to leave the territory of its State due to enemy occupation or civil war?
Answer: (A)
44. Under which of the following Article of the U.N. Charter there is an obligation to inform the Security Council if the regional arrangements take any enforcement action for maintenance of peace and security?
(A) Article 51
(B) Article 54
(C) Article 107
(D) Article 108
Answer: (B)
45. In which one of the following cases the permanent court of International justice held, “it is a generally acceptable principle of international law that in relations, between powers, who are contracting parties to a treaty, the provisions of the municipal law cannot prevail over the treaty”?
(A) Navlilaa Incident Case
(B) Greco, Bulgarian Communities Case.
(C) Panevezys Saldutiskis Railway Case
(D) Polish Postal Service Case
Answer: (B)
46. The wife’s sister’s daughter’s son can be adopted. The adoption is
(A) Void
(B) Valid
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
47. Kritrima Adoption is prevalent in which areas of India?
(A) Madras
(B) Banaras
(C) Avadh
(D) Mithila
Answer: (D)
48. In which case the Supreme Court held that “Cohabitation leads to presumption that person are living as husband and wife”?
(A) Balasubramaniyam vs. Suruttayan AIR 1992 SC 756
(B) Seema vs. Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158
(C) Vishnu Prakash vs. Sheela Devi (2001) 4 SCC 729
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (A)
49. In which of the case, the Supreme Court held that it is desirable that “all marriages should be Compulsorily Registered in the State, where they are solemnized”?
(A) S. Nagalingamvs. Sivagani AIR (2001) SC 3576
(B) Shanti Dev Berma vs. K.P. Devi AIR (1991) SC 816
(C) SeemaVs Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
50. Rules relating to prohibited degrees are based on the principle of
(A) Monogamy
(B) Polygamy
(C) Exogamy
(D) Endogamy
Answer: (C)
51. In Islamic Law, marriage is both ‘Ibadt’ and ‘Mammulat’. Who said this?
(A) Amir Ali Justice
(B) Dr. Fayzee
(C) Abdur-Rahim
(D) Mahmood Justice
Answer: (C)
52. A Muslim husband can delegate his right of Talaq to
(A) Any other person
(B) Wife only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
53. A Muslim minor wife can cease her right to repudiate the marriage in case:
(A) When she attained the age of puberty.
(B) When the marriage was consummated before attaining the age of puberty.
(C) When she is less than 18 years of age.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (B)
54. Find correct answer using codes given below: Following are main approaches to explain nature and meaning of human rights:
(i) The scientific right theory
(ii) The moral right theory
(iii) The natural right theory
(iv) The legal right theory
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (iv) and (i) are correct.
Answer: (C)
55. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): The purpose of Human Rights is to provide protection against the abuse of power committed by the organs of State.
Reason (R): Due to absence of Lok Pal the misuse of power by the State cannot be effectively checked.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
56. Match item in Table-A with items in Table-B using codes given below:
Table – A Table – B
(a) The first generation of Human Rights (i) Idealistic Theory of Law
(b) The second generation of Human Rights (ii) Collective Rights
(c) The third generation of Human Rights (iii) Civil and Political Rights
(d) Theoretical approach to Human Rights (iv) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer: (B)
57. In Indian Constitution, Civil and Political Rights given in its
(A) Part II
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part IX
Answer: (B)
58. “No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile.” Above law is in
(A) Article 21 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Criminal Procedure Code
(C) Civil Procedure Code
(D) Article 9 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Answer: (D)
59. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): Advancement of rights of women has been the concern of world community since the end of Second World War.
Reason (R): In Second World War, population of men was significantly decreased.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
60. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): The child must be given the means requisite for his normal development, both materially and spiritually.
Reason (R): Spirituality is material and material is spiritual.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
61. State which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Liability in tort arises from breach of duty primarily fixed by law.
(B) The duty, breach of which results in tortious liability, is towards the public generally.
(C) The duty, breach of which results in liability in tort, is towards some person in particular.
(D) The breach of duty, which results in liability in tort, is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages.
Answer: (D)
62. The plaintiff was watching a cricket match at a stadium organized by the Cricket Club of India. He wasseriously injured by a mighty hitfrom the batsman. In this case, whois liable to pay the damages to the plaintiff?
(A) The Batsman
(B) The Cricket Club of India
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
63. Which one of the following sets correctly identifies the specific defence available in an action for defamation?
(A) Privilege, Truth, Fair comment.
(B) Privilege, Mistake, Fair comment.
(C) Truth, Mistake, Fair comment.
(D) Truth, Privilege, Mistake.
Answer: (A)
64. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): Pleading lack of intention to defame someone does not absolve one from liability for defamation.
Reason (R): The essence of defamation lies in the lowering a person in the estimation of the right thinking members of the society, even without intention.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
65. Assertion (A): In India, defendants collecting water in reservoirs have not been held liable for damage caused due to the escape of water from these reservoirs in absence of negligence.
Reason (R): The rule of strict liability laid down in Rylands vs. Fletcher case has been held to be not applicable in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
66. Assertion (A): In tort of nuisance, interference by the defendant may cause damage to the plaintiff’s property or personal discomfort in the enjoyment of property.
Reason (R): Every interference in the use of property is a nuisance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
67. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Composition of the District Forum (i) Section 10, C.P. Act
(b) Complaint to be accompanied by court fee (ii) Section 17, C.P. Act
(c) Jurisdiction of the State Commission (iii) Section 23, C.P. Act
(d) Appeals from National Commission to the Supreme Court (iv) Section 12(2) C.P. Act
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (B)
68. Find correct legal principle from following statements:
(A) A company may do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment of its objects or which is otherwise not authorized by the Act.
(B) A company may not do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment of its objects which is otherwise not authorized by the Act.
(C) A company may do an act which is necessary for or incidental to the attainment ofits objects or which is otherwise authorized by the Act.
(D) A company may do an act which is unnecessary for or not incidental to attainment of its goals or which is otherwise barred by the Act.
Answer: (C)
69. Match items from Table-A with items in Table-B, using codes given below:
Table – A Table – B
(a) Lakshmi Ratan Cotton Mills vs. J.K. Jute Mills Co., AIR1957 AII 311 (i) Director’s duty of care, diligence and skill
(b) Automatic Self-cleansing Filter Syndicate Co. Ltd. vs. Cuninghame, (1906) 2 Ch.34 (ii) Statutory protection to Directors against liability
(c) G. Ramesh vs. ROC, (2007) 135 Comp Cas 655 (iii) Powers of Directors
(d) City Equitable Fire Insurance Company, Re, (1924) AII E Rep 485 (iv) Scope of authority of Directors
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer: (A)
70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): A contract of sale may be absolute or conditional.
Reason (R): There is no absolute condition for a contract of sale.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
71. “Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer, the contract is called a sale, but where the transfer of the property in the goods is to take place at a future time or subject to some condition thereafter to be fulfilled, the contract is called an agreement to sell.”
Read above statement and find correct answer, using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Contract of sale is conditional.
(B) Contract of agreement to sell is conditional.
(C) There is no difference between sale and agreement to sell, as both are contracts.
(D) Sale is a contract; agreement to sell is not a contract.
Answer: (B)
72. Essential feature of a partnership is
(i) Agreement
(ii) Object to carry on a business
(iii) To share profits
(iv) Business is to be carried by all or any of them acting for all.
Codes:
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) All of above are correct
Answer: (D)
73. Find the correct legal statement from following statements:
(A) Every partner is liable, severally with all the other partners and jointly for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
(B) Every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and severally for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
(C) Every partner is liable only foracts done by him as acts of thefirm done while he is a partner.
(D) Sleeping partner is not liable for acts done by him as acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
Answer: (B)
74. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): It is the duty of the banker to be acquainted with the customer’s handwriting.
Reason (R): A banker must be hand writing expert.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
75. When a negotiable instrument is dishonored, the party liable to pay, becomes bound to pay compensation to
(A) The bank
(B) The endorser
(C) Holder or endorsee
(D) The Court
Answer: (C)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Law Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Law was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Law paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
We have covered the NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June.
If you have any questions about NTA UGC NET Law Paper 3 Solved Question Papers, please let us know in the comment section.