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NTA UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
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1. Match the following:
Thinker Management Principle
a. F.W. Taylor i. Authority and Responsibility
b. Henri Fayol ii. Hierarchy
c. Weber iii. Separation of planning from doing
d. Elton Mayo iv. Human Relations Approach
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iii ii i iv
Answer: (C)
2. Which of the following is the major element of planning process?
(A) Developing leadership abilities
(B) Selecting right people
(C) Perception of opportunities
(D) Motivating people
Answer: (C)
3. Which principle of management is violated by matrix organisation structure?
(A) Division of Labour
(B) Unity of Direction
(C) Unity of Command
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
4. Which of the following involves careful analysis of inputs and corrective actions before operation is completed?
(A) Feed forward control
(B) Concurrent control
(C) Feedback control
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
5. Which of the following is not a semantic barrier of communication?
(A) Faulty translation
(B) Ambiguous words
(C) Specialist’s language
(D) Inattention
Answer: (D)
6. People should be regarded as assets rather than variable costs was emphasised in
(A) Personnel Management
(B) Human Resource Management
(C) Personnel Administration
(D) Public Administration
Answer: (B)
7. The classical theorists favoured organisation based on
(A) Civilian model
(B) Strategic model
(C) Military model
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
8. Job analysis includes:
(A) Job description and job enlargement
(B) Job enlargement and job enrichment
(C) Job description and job specification
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
9. A test which measure, what it is intended to measure is
(A) Reliable test
(B) Standardised test
(C) Objective test
(D) Valid test
Answer: (D)
10. An enquiry that is conducted afresh because of the objections raised by alleged employee is called
(A) Domestic enquiry
(B) De-novo enquiry
(C) Ex-parte enquiry
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
11. The concept of HRD scorecard was introduced in India by
(A) UdaiPareek
(B) Rao and Pareek
(C) T.V. Rao
(D) ArunHonappa
Answer: (C)
12. Performance appraisal by all the following parties is called 3600 performance appraisal:
(A) Supervisors and Peers
(B) Subordinates and Employees themselves
(C) Users of Service and Consultants
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
13. The following is the right process of training:
(A) Instructional design, validation, need analysis, implementation and evaluation
(B) Need analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation and evaluation
(C) Need analysis, validation, instructional design, implementation and evaluation
(D) Instructional design, need analysis, implementation, validation and evaluation
Answer: (B)
14. Fish bone analysis as a tool of quality circle was advanced by
(A) Edward Deming
(B) Joseph Juran
(C) Kouru Ishi Kawa
(D) Phillip Crosby
Answer: (C)
15. Match the following:
Books and Concepts Authors
a. Games People Play i. Eric Bernie
b. I am OK you are OK ii. Kurt Lewin
c. Johari Window iii. Thomas A. Harris
d. Force Field Analysis iv. Joseph Lufth & Harry Inghams
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii i ii iv
Answer: (B)
16. Which of the following decreases group cohesiveness?
(A) Agreement on group goals
(B) Frequency of interaction
(C) Large group size
(D) All the above
Answer: (C)
17. Managers subscribing to ______ assumptions attempt to structure, control and closely supervise their employees.
(A) Theory ‘X’
(B) Theory ‘Y’
(C) Both Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’
(D) Neither Theory ‘X’ nor Theory ‘Y’
Answer: (A)
18. According to Fiedler’s Contingency Model of Leadership, which one of the following is a situational variable?
(A) Leader – Member relationship
(B) Organisational System
(C) Degree of task structure
(D) Leader’s position power
Answer: (B)
19. The right sequence of steps in Kurt Lewin’s change procedure is
(A) Unfreezing – Moving – Freezing
(B) Moving – Unfreezing – Freezing
(C) Unfreezing – Freezing – Moving
(D) Freezing – Moving – Unfreezing
Answer: (A)
20. Which of the following is not a traditional method of organisational development?
(A) Survey feedback
(B) Sensitivity training
(C) Process consultation
(D) Managerial grid
Answer: (C)
21. Characteristics of Industrial Relations do not include:
(A) Industrial Relations are outcome of employment relationship in an industrial enterprise.
(B) Industrial Relations promote the skills and methods of adjustment and co-operation with each other.
(C) Industrial Relations create complex rules and regulations to maintain cordial relations.
(D) Industrial Relations system creates an environment of distrust and conflict.
Answer: (D)
22. Who are not the Actors of Industrial Relations?
(A) Workers and their organisations
(B) Employers and their organisations
(C) Community and cultural associations
(D) Government and the role of the State
Answer: (C)
23. Which of the following is machinery for settlement of industrial disputes?
(A) Indian Labour Conference
(B) Joint Management Council
(C) Industrial Tribunal
(D) Standing Labour Committees
Answer: (C)
24. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I List – II
a. Joint Management Council consisting of representatives of workers and management was considered by the Indian Labour Conference (ILC) in its 15th Session in the year i. 1958
b. Works Committees were set-up under the Industrial Disputes Act in the year ii. 1947
c. ILO established in the year iii. 1919
d. First National Commission on Labour submitted its report in the year iv. 1969
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) ii iv i ii
Answer: (A)
25. Which of the following trends in the employment relations in the new economic era is not correct?
(A) Declining stability and security
(B) Declining labour intensity
(C) No shift from contract of service to contract of service
(D) Declining mutual commitment
Answer: (C)
26. A Trade Union means “An association of workers in one or more professions carried on mainly for the purpose of protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest in connection with their daily work”.
Identify the author:
(A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
(B) J. Cunnison
(C) G.D.H. Cole
(D) Clyde E. Dankert
Answer: (A)
27. A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local area, if it has membership of
(A) 10% of the workers in that industry.
(B) 15% of the workers in that area.
(C) 25% of the workers of that industry in that area.
(D) 30% of the workers in similar industry.
Answer: (C)
28. Who among the following advocated the Trusteeship Theory of Trade Union?
(A) N.M. Lokhande
(B) B.P. Wadia
(C) G.L. Nanda
(D) M.K. Gandhi
Answer: (D)
29. Inter and intra-union rivalry in Trade Unions is reduced by
(A) The provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947
(B) By voluntary tripartite code of inter-union rivalry – 1957
(C) By bipartite mutual agreement at the industry level
(D) Above all
Answer: (B)
30. Match the following trade unions according to the year of formation:
List – I List – II
a. AITUC i. 1947
b. CITU ii. 1948
c. INTUC iii. 1920
d. HMS iv. 1970
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (A)
31. ‘Employment Injury’ means personal injury to an employee caused by accident or occupational disease arising out of and in the course of employment being an insurable employment if the accident occurs or occupational disease is contracted only within territorial limits of India and not outside India.
The above statement is
(A) Correct.
(B) Incorrect.
(C) true only in case of occupational injury.
(D) true only in case of accident.
Answer: (B)
32. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend
(A) Two consecutive meetings
(B) Three meetings intermittently
(C) Three consecutive meetings
(D) Four consecutive meetings
Answer: (C)
33. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
(A) Individual manager subordinate to an employer cannot act as managing agent.
(B) Managing agent includes an individual manager subordinate to an employer.
(C) Only employer can act as managing agent.
(D) The appropriate government shall appoint managing agent.
Answer: (D)
34. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(A) Together can be applicable.
(B) The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(C) The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
(D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
Answer: (D)
35. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?
(A) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.
(B) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.
(C) List of occupational diseases.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
36. A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the executive or any other office bearer of the registered trade union if he attained the age of
(A) Fifteen years
(B) Eighteen years
(C) Twenty one years
(D) Twenty five years
Answer: (B)
37. The registered trade union can collect political fund from its members as a
(A) General fund
(B) Cannot collect political fund
(C) Separate fund from the interested members
(D) Only from political parties
Answer: (C)
38. ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
(a) Not interim determination of labour court
(b) Not arbitration award under Section 10A
(c) Not final determination of labour court
(d) Not final determination of arbitration award under section 10A
(A) All statements are true.
(B) (a) and (d) are true.
(C) (b) is true.
(D) All statements are wrong.
Answer: (D)
39. The dispute of individual workman is deemed to be industrial dispute if the dispute or difference is connected with or arising out of the following where no other workman nor any union of workman is a party to the dispute.
(A) Grievance of an individual workman.
(B) Discharge of an individual workman.
(C) Dismissal of an individual workman.
(D) Discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or otherwise termination of services of an individual workman.
Answer: (D)
40. The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of Bonus under the
Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is
(A) Rs. 2,500
(B) Rs. 3,500
(C) Rs. 4,500
(D) Rs. 6,500
Answer: (B)
41. “A desirable state of existence comprehending physical, mental, moral and emotional health or well-being” is the theme of which concept of Labour Welfare?
(A) Social Concept
(B) Total Concept
(C) Relative Concept
(D) Positive Concept
Answer: (B)
42. Assertion (A): Labour Welfare is relative to time and space.
Reason (R): It shall be universal and perpetual.
(A) Assertion and Reason are right.
(B) Assertion is wrong and Reason is right.
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
(D) Assertion is right but its explanation given in Reason is wrong.
Answer: (D)
43. Minimum conditions of welfare is explained by
(A) Dr.Aykroid’s formula
(B) Subsistence Theory
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
44. Which of the following is not a principle of Labour Welfare?
(A) The Principle of Uniformity
(B) The Principle of Co-ordination and Integration
(C) The principle of Association
(D) The Principle of Timeliness
Answer: (A)
45. Match the following:
List – I List – II
(Theme) (Theory)
a. The labour welfare philosophy is meant for guarding the interests of labour against the exploitation of employers. i. Trusteeship Theory
b. The labour welfare philosophy exposes the cause of empathic considerations by the employer of employee well-being ii. Placating Theory
c. The employer has to set out a portion of the profits for the benefit of the employees iii. Policing Theory
d. Labour Welfare is provided for pacifying the agitating working class iv. Philanthropic Theory
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
Answer: (B)
46. “Labour is not a commodity” – is the assertion made by
(A) The Declaration of Philadelphia adopted by 26th session of ILO
(B) The Magna Carta
(C) The Constitution of India
(D) The International Labour Conference
Answer: (A)
47. Match the following:
Concept Propagators
a. Industrial Democracy i. Karl Marx
b. Industrial Citizenship ii. Robert Owen
c. Class Conflict iii. Peter F. Drucker
d. Welfare Movement iv. Sydney &Beatrize Webbs
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii i ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv i iii
Answer: (B)
48. Assertion (A): Industrial Labour in India has been migratory.
Reason (R): Driving force in migration comes almost entirely from one end of the channel, that is the village end.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(C) (A) is right and (R) also is right.
(D) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
Answer: (C)
49. Match the following:
Theory of wages Propagators
a. Wage Fund Theory i. John Bates Clark
b. Marginal Productivity Theory ii. John Davidson
c. Bargaining Theory iii. John Stuart Mill
d. Investment Theory iv. Gilelman
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) i iii ii iv
Answer: (B)
50. The “Marginal Discounted Product of Labour” as a modified version of Marginal Productivity Theory was advanced by
(A) Taussig
(B) Kalecki
(C) Ricardo
Answer: (A)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Previous Year Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Labour Welfare Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
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| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2020 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 December |
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| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
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