NTA UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December

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NTA UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December

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1. The S.N.F. of standard milk should be as follows:

(A) 8.5%

(B) 7.2%

(C) 6.5%

(D) 5.2%

Answer: (A)

2. The period of human embryo is

(A) 2 – 4 weeks

(B) 1 – 8 weeks

(C) 2 – 8 weeks

(D) 2 – 6 weeks

Answer: (C)

3. Level of Intelligent Quotient of educable mentally challenged child is

(A) 0 – 25

(B) 50 – 75

(C) 25 – 50

(D) 75 – 100

Answer: (D)

4. Conversation is a

(A) Listening skill

(B) Intellectual skill

(C) Expressive skill

(D) Receptive skill

Answer: (C)

5. Degree of polymerization for polyester ranges between

(A) 50 – 70

(B) 90 – 115

(C) 115 – 140

(D) 140 – 165

Answer: (C)

6. Which of the following can finish hundreds of garments at one time by a single operator?

(A) Carousel jeans finisher

(B) Steam dolly

(C) Tunnel finisher

(D) Suction counter table

Answer: (C)

7. Indicate the region, separating one system from another, in the systems approaches to management

(A) Boundary

(B) Interface

(C) Exchanger

(D) Divider

Answer: (A)

8. Bending and carrying respectively belong to which kind of effort?

(A) Pedal and Mental

(B) Torsal and Manual

(C) Manual and Pedal

(D) Pedal and Torsal

Answer: (B)

9. Vanaspati is an adulterant in

(A) Malt

(B) Haldi

(C) Ghee and butter

(D) Saffron

Answer: (C)

10. The process of assessing the progress of a project based on predetermined indicators and objectives of the programme is known as

(A) Planning

(B) Implementation

(C) Monitoring

(D) Evaluation

Answer: (C)

11. Performance appraisals and review committees in an organization are examples of

(A) Outline evaluation

(B) Internal evaluation

(C) External evaluation

(D) Summative evaluation

Answer: (B)

12. Organization chart is also known as

(A) Tree chart

(B) Flow chart

(C) Flip chart

(D) Striptease chart

Answer: (B)

13. Which are the chemicals used for artificial ripening of fruits?

(a) Ethephon

(b) Benzene

(c) Methanol

(d) Calcium carbide

(A) (a) & (b)

(B) (b) & (c)

(C) (c)& (d)

(D) (d) & (a)

Answer: (D)

14. Components of the National vitamin A prophylaxis programme are:

(a) Providing supplementary nutrition

(b) Distributing mega doses of vitamin A

(c) Feeding colostrum

(d) Encouraging consumption of fruits & veg

(e) All of the above

(A) (a), (b), (c)

(B) (e)

(C) (b) & (d)

(D) (b), (c), (d)

Answer: (C)

15. Which of the following are not used for financial management?

(a) Variable cost

(b) Trial balance

(c) Performance Appraisal

(d) Fixed cost

(e) Break even analysis

(f) SWOT

(A) (a) and (f)

(B) (c) and (f)

(C) (a), (b) and (f)

(D) (e), (f) and (b)

Answer: (B)

16. The symptoms in kidney failure patients are

(a) GFR 90 ml/min

(b) GFR 20 ml or less/min

(c) Oliguria

(d) Polyuria

(e) Oedema

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) & (c)

(B) (a), (c) & (e)

(C) (d), (e) & (a)

(D) (b), (c) & (e)

Answer: (D)

17. To avoid diaper rash:

I. Change wet diapers immediately.

II. Use soft pants on diapers

III. Avoid using diapers till rashes disappear

IV. Clean and dry the area before putting a fresh diaper.

Codes:

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) I and IV are correct.

(C) I, III and IV are correct.

(D) II and IV are correct.

Answer: (B)

18. Immunization is necessary for children:

I. To develop defense mechanism in the body.

II. To increase nutritional status.

III. To reduce discomfort.

IV. To reduce incidence of viral and infectious diseases.

Codes:

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and IV are correct.

(C) I and IV are correct.

(D) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (C)

19. Dominant emotions are always:

I. Pleasant

II. Unpleasant

III. Strong

IV. Rare

Codes:

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) II and IV are correct.

(D) All are correct.

Answer: (B)

20. Following tests are mandatory for exports of children’s clothing.

I. Zipper strength

II. Snap strength

III. Needle detection

IV. Seam strength

Codes:

(A) I, III and IV are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) II, III and IV are correct.

(D) I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following blends have best flame retardancy?

I. Cotton – Wool

II. Cotton – Spandex

III. Modacrylic – Spandex

IV. Modacrylic – Wool

V. Aramid – PVC

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) IV and V are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (B)

22. Which of the following thread packages are not suitable for use on industrial machines?

I. Spools

II. Cops

III. Vicones

IV. Cones

Codes:

(A) I and IV are correct

(B) III and IV are correct

(C) I and II are correct

(D) II and III are correct

Answer: (C)

23. Which among the following are advertised under ‘classified category’?

I. Job vacancy

II. Matrimonial

III. Coffee powder

IV. Bicycles

Codes:

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(C) III and IV are correct.

(D) I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (A)

24. The affective components of workers are

I. Attitudes

II. Skills

III. Feelings

IV. Interests

Codes:

(A) I, II and III are correct.

(B) I, III and IV are correct.

(C) II, III and IV are correct.

(D) I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (B)

25. Goals of the elderly include:

I. Family relations

II. Good health

III. Education

IV. Vocational pursuits

Codes:

(A) II and III are correct.

(B) III and IV are correct.

(C) I and III are correct.

(D) I and II are correct.

Answer: (D)

26. Voluntary organisations are involved in the following activities:

(a) Welfare

(b) Policy decision making

(c) Advocacy

(d) Networking

Codes:

(A) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(B) (a) and (d) are correct.

(C) (a) and (c) are correct.

(D) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (D)

27. Channels for participatory communication are

(a) Community Radio

(b) Participatory Video

(c) Street theatre

(d) Films

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(B) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(C) (b) and (d) are correct.

(D) (d) and (a) are correct.

Answer: (A)

28. Local leaders in development programme planning are also considered to be

(a) Key communicators

(b) Opinion leaders

(c) Information leaders

(d) Change agents

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(B) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(C) All are correct

(D) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (C)

29. Assertion (A): Bulimia nervosa is defined by little eating or reduced intake of food over a long period of time.

Reason (R): Little eating is used to describe the consumption of food that is much smaller than most people would eat during a similar period of time.

(A) (A) is true (R) is false.

(B) (A) is false (R) is true.

(C) Both (A) & (R) are true.

(D) Both (A) & (R) are false.

Answer: (B)

30. Assertion (A): The menu is the heart of the entire establishment on which all activities are centered.

Reason (R): The menu determines the materials to be purchased, equipments to be used, current food trends and even the style of leadership and workman’s compensation.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) (A) is correct but (R) is partially correct.

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (B)

31. Assertion (A): Consumption of plenty of fruits and vegetables protects individuals from

Certain cancers.

Reason (R): The antioxidants present in fruits and vegetables help in removal of free radicals.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(B) Both (A) & (R) are true.

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

32. Assertion (A): Mentally challenged people have no right for marriage.

Reason (R): They are unable to bear and rear children.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(C) (A) is correct (R) is wrong explanation.

(D) (A) is wrong (R) is correct explanation.

Answer: (B)

33. Assertion (A): Consistent sleep routines are advisable for all children right from birth.

Reason (R): It increases separation anxiety and deprives stimulation.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(C) (A) is correct (R) is wrong explanation.

(D) (A) is wrong (R) is correct explanation.

Answer: (C)

34. Assertion (A): Post mature babies are generally long and thin as they receive insufficient blood supply towards the end of gestation.

Reason (R): The aged placenta is less efficient to supply oxygen.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) (A) is correct (R) is wrong explanation.

(C) (A) is wrong (R) is correct explanation.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (A)

35. Assertion (A): Marker efficiency can be enhanced by pattern engineering.

Reason (R): It divides the awkwardly shaped patterns in two pieces.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

36. Assertion (A): A dart can be relocated without changing the fit.

Reason (R): Shifting of dart to various places does not change the angle of dart.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

37. Assertion (A): To identify the polyester fibre it is important to negate the presence of nylon and acrylic by dissolving in hot phenol and concentrated nitric acid.

Reason (R): Polyester is insoluble in both hot phenol and concentrated nitric acid.

Codes:

(A) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (C)

38. Assertion (A): Motion against gravity are slower than those with gravity.

Reason (R): A good example is pushing chopped vegetable into a bowl kept at a lower level.

Codes:

(A) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Answer: (D)

39. Assertion (A): Ergonomics is also referred to as ‘Human Factors’.

Reason (R): The focus of the study is on worker fatigue.

Codes:

(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (A)

40. Assertion (A): Communication whether interpersonal or between social systems involves interface, the common boundary of two systems.

Reason (R): The interface between families and other systems remain the same irrespective of their income.

Codes:

(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (A)

41. Assertion (A): Mass Communication is not appropriate for participatory Communication.

Reason (R): Mass communication is largely monologue.

Codes:

(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (C)

42. Assertion (A): A good communicator is a good listener.

Reason (R): Communication is a cyclic process.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(C) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

Answer: (A)

43. Assertion (A): Need assessment is carried out to identify the gap between the present and the desired situation.

Reason (R): Objectives of programme planning are based on need assessment.

Codes:

(A) (A) is correct, (R) is wrong.

(B) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

Answer: (C)

44. Arrange in the right sequence the steps taken in planning a physical facility for food service unit.

(a) Planning Team

(b) Menu Analysis

(c) Architectural features

(d) Prospectus

(e) Budget

(f) Feasibility study

Codes:

(A) (a), (b), (d), (c), (f), (e)

(B) (a), (f), (c), (d), (e), (b)

(C) (d), (a), (f), (b), (c), (e)

(D) (f), (e), (d), (c), (b), (a)

Answer: (C)

45. Arrange in the correct sequence, the symptoms of diabetes as they appear with advancement of disease:

(a) Dehydration

(b) Glycosuria

(c) Polyurea

(d) Ketosis

(e) Hyperglycemia

(f) Diabetic coma

Codes:

(A) (e), (c), (b), (d), (a), (f)

(B) (e), (b), (c), (a), (d), (f)

(C) (b), (a), (c), (e), (f), (d)

(D) (c), (b), (a), (d), (e), (f)

Answer: (B)

46.
NTA UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December qn 46

Answer: (B)

47. Arrange the following in order of establishment in correct sequence:

I. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)

II. Central Social Welfare Board (CSWB)

III. Convention on the rights of child (CRC)

IV. National Council of Education, Research and Training (NCERT)

Codes:

(A) II, I, III, IV

(B) II, IV, I, III

(C) III, II, IV, I

(D) I, III, IV, II

Answer: (B)

48. Write the correct sequence of early language development stages:

I. Cooing

II. Babbling

III. Crying

IV. Gestures

V. Utterance

Codes:

(A) I, III, II, V, IV

(B) III, IV, II, I, V

(C) I, II, III, IV, V

(D) III, I, II, IV, V

Answer: (D)

49. Arrange Abraham Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs in correct sequence:

I. Security needs

II. Self-esteem

III. Physiological needs

IV. Self-actualization

Codes:

(A) III, IV, I, II

(B) III, I, II, IV

(C) I, III, IV, II

(D) II, I, III, IV

Answer: (B)

50. Give the sequence of wool manufacturing and processing:

I. lap formation

II. Separation of tops and nails

III. Grading of fibres

IV. Carbonizing

V. Scouring

VI. Washing and oiling

Codes:

(A) II, I, III, V, VI, IV

(B) III, I, II, IV, V, VI

(C) V, IV, III, I, II, VI

(D) III, V, IV, VI, I, II

Answer: (D)

51. Give the sequence of weaving operations

I. Drawing

II. Looming and weaving

III. Warp & Weft winding

IV. Denting

V. Warping and Sizing

Codes:

(A) V, IV, I, III, II

(B) III, V, I, IV, II

(C) I, IV, V, II, III

(D) I, IV, II, III, II

Answer: (B)

52. What is the sequence followed in the merchandising department of a garment industry?

I. Costing

II. Booking order

III. Raw material procurements

IV. Designing and sampling

V. Selling the concept

VI. Production follows up

Codes:

(A) V, II, IV, I, III, VI

(B) II, IV, VI, V, I, III

(C) I, II, V, III, VI, IV

(D) IV, I, II, V, III, VI

Answer: (A)

53. Sequence the general objectives of Ergonomics according to their order of importance:

I. Efficiency

II. Comfort

III. Health and Safety

IV. Productivity

Codes:

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, I, IV

(C) II, IV, III, I

(D) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (B)

54. According to Mundel, each higher level brings about changes in motion in the level below it. Arrange the changes in the proper sequence:

I. Body portions and motions

II. Working arrangements and equipment.

III. Finished product

IV. Raw materials

V. Production sequence

Codes:

(A) I, II, III, IV, V

(B) I, III, V, II, IV

(C) I, II, V, III, IV

(D) V, III, II, I, IV

Answer: (C)

 

55. Given are four acts pertaining to consumerism in India. Identify the correct order in which they were enacted:

I. Prevention of Food Adulteration Act

II. Standards of Weight and Measures Act

III. Essential Commodities Act

IV. Consumer Protection Act

Codes:

(A) I, III, II, IV

(B) I, II, III, IV

(C) III, II, I, IV

(D) II, IV, III, I

Answer: (A)

56. Organise the following steps in the sequential order of Programme Management:

(a) Situation Analysis

(b) Evaluation

(c) Identifying objectives

(d) Executing plan

Codes:

(A) (c), (a), (d), (b)

(B) (a), (c), (d), (b)

(C) (a), (d), (b), (c)

(D) (b), (d), (c), (a)

Answer: (B)

57. Arrange sequentially the following steps of planning incentives in an enterprise:

(a) Developing achievement reward relationship

(b) Measuring achievement

(c) Selecting the objectives

(d) Designing a system

Codes:

(A) (d), (a), (b), (c)

(B) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(C) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(D) (c), (b), (a), (d)

Answer: (D)

58. The correct sequence for curriculum planning is

(a) Tentative curriculum

(b) Consideration of curriculum needs

(c) Evaluation of tentative curriculum

(d) Pilot testing of tentative curriculum

Codes:

(A) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(B) (b), (a), (d), (c)

(C) (c), (a), (b), (d)

(D) (d), (c), (b), (a)

Answer: (B)

59. Match the active components from

List – I with species in List – II:

List – I                                                List – II

(Active component)                (Spice)

a. Allylisothiocynate               i. Turmeric

b. Allin                                    ii. Clove

c. Curcumin                             iii. Mustard

d. Eugeniol                              iv. Garlic

v. Pepper

Codes:

a b c d

(A) v iv i ii

(B) iii v i iv

(C) iii iv i ii

(D) ii iii iv v

Answer: (C)

60. Match deficiency diseases from List – I with their symptoms in List – II.

List – I                                                List – II

a. Rickets                                            i. Delirium

b. Fluorosis                                          ii. Parasthesia

c. Beriberi                                            iii. Mottled teeth

d. Pallegra                                           iv. Kyphosis

v. Polyurea

Codes:

a b c d

(A) v iii i ii

(B) iii iv v i

(C) iv iii v i

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer: (D)

61. Match the following List – I with items in List – II:

List – I                                    List – II

a. Expectancy theory              i. Menu of the day

b. Scientific management        ii. Set menu

c. Perpetual inventory             iii. Taylor

d. Table de hote menu            iv. Small heater placed on side table.

e. Record                                 v. Exact amount of products in store f. Sales mix

vi. Frequency of menu items selected by customers

vii. Vroom

Codes:

a b c d e f

(A) i iii ii vi iv v

(B) ii iv vii i v iii

(C) vii iii v ii iv vi

(D) ii iv vi v i iii

Answer: (C)

62. Match the disease in List – I to symptoms in List – II

List – I                                                List – II

(Disease)                                 (Symptoms)

a. CHF                                    i. increased LDL

b. Dyslipidemia                       ii. Parasthesia

c. Diabetes                              iii. Peripheral oedema

d. Vitamin D deficiency         iv. Polydypsia

v. Fatmal absorption

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii v i iii

(B) v iii ii v

(C) iv v ii i

(D) iii i iv v

Answer: (D)

63. Match the items in List – I with List – II

List – I                                    List – II

a. D.P.T.                                  i. Sensorial training

b. Jealousy                               ii. Whooping cough

c. Maria Montessori                iii. Baumrind’s parenting styles

d. Havighurst                          iv. Negative emotion

v. Developmental tasks

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii iv i v

(B) iv ii i iii

(C) ii iii v i

(D) v i iii iv

Answer: (A)

64. Match the items in List – I with List – II

List – I                                    List – II

a. Howard Gardener               i. Apgar scale

b. Cephalocaudal                    ii. 1965

c. Dr. Virginia                         iii. Developmental tasks

d. Head start                           iv. Head to toe

v. Multiple intelligence

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iii i ii v

(B) ii iv iii i

(C) v iv i ii

(D) i iv v iii

Answer: (C)

65. Match the items in List – I with List – II

List – I                                                List – II

a. Active learning                                i. Freud

b. Heightened emotionality                ii. Adolescence

c. Electra complex                               iii. Outdoor play

d. Visit to post office                          iv. First hand experiences

v. Emotional disturbance

vi. Field Trip

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iii v ii iv

(B) iv ii i vi

(C) i v ii iii

(D) iii i iv iii

Answer: (B)

66. Match the denim washes given in List – I with their effect given in List – II

List – I                                    List – II

a. Acid wash                           i. Selective fading of edges

b. Atari                                    ii. Faded and softer look

c. Enzyme wash                      iii. Contrasts in colour

d. Sand blasting                      iv. Grey or yellow effects on removal of indigo

e. Sulphur bottom                   v. Abraded look

Codes:

a b c d e

(A) i ii iii iv v

(B) iii i ii v iv

(C) v iv i ii iii

(D) iv iii v i ii

Answer: (B)

67. Match the items in List – I with the items in List – II

List – I                                    List – II

a. Throatplate                          i. Holds the fabric in place

b. Feed dog                             ii. Provides smooth surface for stitching

c. Pressure foot                       iii. Stops the sewing mechanisms

d. Stop motion screw              iv. Moves the fabric ahead

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i iii ii iv

(B) ii iv i iii

(C) iii ii iv i

(D) iv i iii ii

Answer: (B)

68. Match the garments given in List – I with the type of case given in List – II

List – I                        List – II

a. Saree blouse            i. Style ease

b. Jackets                     ii. Negative ease

c. Kurta                       iii. Layered ease

d. Swim suit                iv. Comfort ease

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i iv ii iii

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) iii ii iv i

(D) iv iii i ii

Answer: (D)

69. Match the traditional Indian Textiles of List – I with the centre of productions given in List – II

List – I                        List – II

a. Baluchari                 i. Patan

b. Paithani                   ii. Murshidabad

c. Mushroo                  iii. Dhacca

d. Jamdhani                 iv. Yeola

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iv iii ii i

(B) iii i iv ii

(C) ii iv i iii

(D) i ii iii iv

Answer: (C)

70. Match the items in List – I with List – II

List – I                                                List – II

a. Overlapping                                     i. Elaboration

b. Ordering                                          ii. Intermittent attention to 2 or more tasks

c. Ability to process information        iii. Creating meaningful sequence

d. Dovetailing                                                 iv. Fixed interaction pattern

v. Concurrent attention to 2 or more tasks

Codes:

a b c d

(A) v iv iii i

(B) i iii iv v

(C) iv ii v i

(D) v iii i ii

Answer: (D)

71. Match the items in List – I with List – II

List – I                                    List – II

a. Work performance              i. EMG

b. Muscular fatigue                 ii. Pedometer

c. Assisted living                     iii. Calories

d. Gravity                                iv. Elderly

v. Posture

Codes:

a b c d

(A) v iv i ii

(B) iv i iii ii

(C) iii i iv v

(D) v iii iv ii

Answer: (C)

72. Match the following items in List – I with List – II.

List – I                                                List – II

a. Study of elderly                              i. Goniometer

b. Study of man machine systems      ii. Anthropometer

c. Study of angles of body bend        iii. Geriatrics

d. Study of body dimensions                         iv. Ergonomics

v. Flexi curve

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) i ii iv iii

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) iv iii i ii

Answer: (A)

73. Match the following items in List – I with List – II

List – I                        List – II

a. Specimen                 i. Enlarged version of original

b. Model                      ii. Miniature replica of an object in working condition

c. Diorama                   iii. Miniature replica of an object

d. Mockups                 iv. Scenic representation of the original

v. Sample which represents the whole

Codes:

a b c d

(A) v ii iv i

(B) iv v i ii

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) v iii iv ii

Answer: (D)

74. Match the communication function in List – I with its most appropriate description in List– II

List – I                                    List – II

a. Affinity                               i. Change behaviour of others

b. Information                         ii. To play and have fun

c. Persuasion                           iii. Obtain facts

d. Entertainment                     iv. Seek to establish relationships

v. To command respect

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iv iii i ii

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) v iii i ii

(D) ii iv v iii

Answer: (A)

75. Match the following items in List – I with List – II

List – I                        List – II

a. NREGA                  i. Sanitation

b. NRHM                    ii. Child health and nutrition

c. TSC                         iii. Health

d. ICDS                      iv. Employment

v. Environment

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iii iv

(B) iv iii i ii

(C) v iii i ii

(D) iii i v iv

Answer: (B)


Year Wise Solved UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers

The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Home Science was of descriptive type till December 2011.

Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.

So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.

Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Home Science paper 3 Solved Paper
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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