NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
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NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Environmental Sciences exam.
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1. In a multiple regression model, the f-ratio is used to test the
(A) Variance of the data
(B) Standard error of mean
(C) R2 value
(D) Overall goodness of fit of the model.
Answer: (D)
2. If the mean of a sample is 20, the standard error of mean is 1 and the t-statistic for 95% level of confidence is 2.5, the population mean will be in the range
(A) 17.5 to 22.5
(B) 15 to 25
(C) 20 to 25
(D) 15 to 20
Answer: (A)
3. The third moment about the mean of a distribution of a set of observations is a measure of
(A) Mode
(B) Skewness
(C) Kurtosis
(D) Variance
Answer: (B)
4. Consider an air shed over a city in the form of a rectangular box. The wind velocity is 5 m/sec normal to left face of the box. The length of the box along the direction of wind is 10 km and mixing height is 1 km. assuming rapid mixing of the pollutants which are conservative in nature, the concentration of the pollutants in the city would reach 63% of its final value in
(A) 2,000 sec
(B) 5,000 sec
(C) 10,000 sec
(D) 1,000 sec
Answer: (A)
5. Which one of the following states of mercury is volatile?
(A) Organic
(B) Ionic
(C) Atomic
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
6. Molar extinction coefficient of H2O2 at 240 nm is 0.04 M–1 cm–1. The concentration of H2O2 in a solution which has absorbance of 0.6 in a 3 cm curette will be
(A) 5 M
(B) 10 M
(C) 15 M
(D) 20 M
Answer: (A)
7.
Answer: (C)
8. Which one of the following is a peroxyl radical?
(A) OH0
(B) R0
(C) RO0
(D) ROO0
Answer: (D)
9. Depending upon the amount of net primary productivity the various ecosystems can be arranged in a decreasing sequence of yield.
(A) Tropical seasonal forest – Tropical rain forest – Temperate Grassland – Woodland and Shrubland.
(B) Tropical seasonal forest – Tropical rain forest – Woodland and Shrubland – Temperate Grassland
(C) Tropical rain forest – Temperate Grassland – Woodland and Shrubland – Tropical seasonal forest.
(D) Tropical rain forest – Tropical seasonal forest – Woodland and Shrubland – Temperate Grassland.
Answer: (D)
10. Which of the following is a correct sequence of secondary seral vegetation development on any habitat?
(A) Ecesis – Invasion – Aggregation – Stabilization
(B) Ecesis – Aggregation – Invasion – Stabilization
(C) Aggregation – Invasion – Ecesis– Stabilization
(D) Invasion – Ecesis – Aggregation – Stabilization
Answer: (B)
11. What is common feature among the following?
Abiesdelavayi
Aconitum diennorrhzum
Adinandragriffthii
Aglaiaperviridis
(A) All have been extinct.
(B) All are gymnosperms.
(C) All are identified as endangered species.
(D) All are angiosperms.
Answer: (C)
12. Raunkiaer’s normal biological spectrum for phanerogamic flora of the world exhibits one of the following sequences of occurrence (%) of different life forms.
(A) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes.
(B) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Therophytes, Chaemophytes, Cryptophytes.
(C) Phanerophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Chaemophytes, Therophytes.
(D) Phanerophytes, Chaemophytes, Hemicryptophytes, Cryptophytes, Therophytes.
Answer: (B)
13. One of the following categories of earthworms is most suitable for wasteland reclamation.
(A) Epigeic
(B) Anecic
(C) Endogeic
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
14. How many mega-bio-diverse countries have been identified in the world?
(A) 2
(B) 12
(C) 17
(D) 35
Answer: (C)
15. Which one of the following is an Exsitu method of biodiversity conservation?
(A) Seed storage
(B) DNA Bank
(C) Tissue culture
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
16. Which one of the following is a methyl isocyanate (MIC) based pesticide?
(A) Sevin (Carbaryl)
(B) Temix (Aldicarb)
(C) Furadon (Carbofuran)
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
17. The sequence of fossil fuels in the order of higher to lower heating value is as follows:
(A) Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Hydrogen.
(B) Hydrogen, Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal.
(C) Hydrogen, Coal, Natural Gas, Petroleum.
(D) Natural Gas, Petroleum, Coal, Hydrogen.
Answer: (B)
18. Natural ore of radioactive materials does not contain which one of the following isotope?
(A) U235
(B) Pu239
(C) U238
(D) Th232
Answer: (B)
19. The process of splitting bigger hydrocarboninto smaller hydrocarbonmolecules is called
(A) Pyrolysis
(B) Thermal decomposition
(C) Cracking
(D) Combustion
Answer: (C)
20. Which one of the following is a complex in organic fertilizer?
(A) Urea
(B) Super phosphate
(C) Potash
(D) NPK
Answer: (D)
21. The sequence of ease of decomposition of organic compounds in soil is
(A) Lignin – Hemicellulose – Starch – Crude protein – Fat
(B) Crude protein – Starch – Fat – Lignin – Hemicellulose
(C) Starch – Crude protein – Hemicellulose – Fat – Lignin
(D) Fat – Starch – Lignin – Hemicellulose – Crude protein
Answer: (C)
22. Which one of the following radionuclides has the lowest half life period?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Answer: (C)
23. Match the rules mentioned in Column – I with year of enforcement mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 1. 2000
b. Biomedical Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules. 2. 1978
c. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules 3. 1989
d. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Rules 4. 1998
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Answer: (A)
24. Average composition of biodegradable waste in Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) of India is
(A) 30 – 35%
(B) 40 – 45%
(C) 55 – 65%
(D) 60 – 70%
Answer: (B)
25. The treatment method recommended for the human anatomical waste generated from hospitals is
(A) Chemical disinfection
(B) Autoclaving
(C) Incineration
(D) All the above
Answer: (C)
26. Match the waste class mentioned in Column – I with Color Code of the Collection Container mentioned in Column – II.
Column – I Column – II
a. Human Anatomical Waste 1. Blue
b. Waste Scrap 2. Green
c. Discarded glass ware 3. Red
d. Disposable plastics 4. White
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Answer: (D)
27. Which of the following is true when frequency of occurrence of risk is remote but possible?
(A) Risk is acceptable.
(B) Risk reduction measures should be implemented.
(C) Risk is unacceptable.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are true.
Answer: (A)
28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Indirect impacts are more difficult to measure, but can ultimately be more important.
Reason (R): In areas where wildlife is plentiful, such as Africa, new roads often lead to the rapid depletion of animals.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
29. An earthquake measuring over 8 on Richter scale is rated as
(A) Destructive
(B) Major
(C) Great
(D) Damaging
Answer: (C)
30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): It is difficult to judge how changes in localized gas samples represent more general conditions in the Volcano.
Reason (R): The composition of the juvenile gases emitted from volcanic vents offen show considerable variation over short periods and distances.
Choose the correct answer.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
31. In a false – color set, human visual perception is limited to how many independent coordinates?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) One
(D) Five
Answer: (A)
32. If D = Detector Dimension, F = Focal Length, H = Flying Height, then Ground Resolution Element (GRE) is equal to
(A) (D/F) X H
(B) D/F
(C) H/F
(D) D/H
Answer: (A)
33. Darkest level of the associated color (RGB) would have brightness value equal to
(A) 0
(B) 256
(C) 255
(D) 2047
Answer: (A)
34.
Answer: (A)
35. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Constituents of Particulate matter) (Sources)
a. Si 1. Natural Resources
b. PAH 2. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.
c. SO2-4 3. Elements largely introduced by Human Activities.
d. Pb 4. Reactions of a gas in atmosphere.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answer: (A)
36.
Answer: (B)
37. Scale lengths associated with synoptic scale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
(A) 10 – 100 km
(B) 200 – 40,000 km
(C) 10,000 – 100,000 km
(D) 1 – 10 km
Answer: (B)
38. Assume that the atmosphere is isothermal at 25 C and the estimated maximum daily surface temperature is 35C, the mixing height is (take adiabatic lapse rate to be 1 C per 100 m)
(A) 3.5 km
(B) 2.5 km
(C) 1.5 km
(D) 1 km
Answer: (D)
39. The wavelengths of UV-A radiations are in the range
(A) 200 – 240 nm
(B) 240 – 280 nm
(C) 280 – 320 nm
(D) 320 – 400 nm
Answer: (D)
40. Two sounds of 80 dB and 85 Db superimpose at a location. What is the resultant sound at that location?
(A) ~ 82 dB
(B) ~ 87 dB
(C) ~ 91 dB
(D) ~ 165 dB
Answer: (A)
41. The coefficient of performance of a wind turbine for maximum power output is
(A) 13/18
(B) 5/8
(C) 16/27
(D) 11/17
Answer: (C)
42. Which of the following does not have a direct role in climate change?
(A) Sulphate and nitrate aerosols
(B) Black carbon aerosols
(C) Surface ozone
(D) Nitric oxide
Answer: (D)
43. Which method is used to separate molecules on the basis of their sizes?
(A) Ion exchange chromatography
(B) Molecular exclusion chromatography
(C) Adsorption chromatography
(D) Thin layer chromatography
Answer: (B)
44. Which type of support media is used in different types of electrophoresis?
(A) Agarose gel
(B) Polyacrylamide gel
(C) Sodium dedecyl sulphate polyacrylamide gel
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
45. Which of the following categories of plants get benefitted more due to elevation of CO2 level?
(A) C3 plants
(B) C4 plants
(C) CAM plants
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
46. Aquifers that extend continuously from the land surface through material of high permeability are
(A) Aquitards
(B) Auicludes
(C) Confined aquifers
(D) Unconfined aquifers
Answer: (D)
47. Which one of the following is used to determine ambient concentration of suspended particulate matter?
(A) Cascade impactor
(B) Kjeldahl’s Flask
(C) Sacchi Disk
(D) Folin-Wu method
Answer: (A)
48. Which of the following laws states that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in contact with liquid?
(A) Hick’s law
(B) Henry’s law
(C) Hardy-Weinburg law of equilibrium
(D) 2nd Law of Newton
Answer: (B)
49. Maximum CaO is found in
(A) Bauxite
(B) Limonite
(C) Lime Stone
(D) Siderite
Answer: (C)
50. The sequence of chemical constituents in order of their abundance in a majority of sedimentary rocks is
(A) SiO2 > TiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3
(B) SiO2 > Al2O3 > Fe2O3 > TiO2
(C) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > Al2O3> TiO2
(D) SiO2 > Fe2O3 > TiO2> Al2O3
Answer: (B)
51. The primary producers in the marine ecosystem are
(A) Eubacteria and Algae
(B) Cyanobacteria and Algae
(C) Algae and Protozoans
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
52. Mycorrhizae can be used as bio fertilizers because they
(A) Fix nitrogen
(B) Fix CO2
(C) Solubilise phosphate
(D) Kill pathogens
Answer: (C)
53. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Some plants with mycorrhizal fungi are able to occupy habitats that otherwise could not inhabit.
Reason (R): The importance of mycorrhizal plant interaction is attested by the fact that 95% of all plants have mycorrhizae.
Choose the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
54. An interactive association between two populations in which one population benefits from the association, while the other is not affected, is
(A) Mutualism
(B) Neutralism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Symbiosis
Answer: (C)
55. The method for down streaming of ethanol from fermentation broth is
(A) Filtration
(B) Flow cytometry
(C) Distillation
(D) Flame Photometry
Answer: (C)
56. The country which uses maximum nuclear power is
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Germany
Answer: (C)
57. Which bacteria removes copper from low grade copper ore?
(A) Thiobacillussp
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis
(C) Rhizobium sp
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
58. Which of the following is not a part of Geographic Information Syste (GIS)?
(A) Projection
(B) Overlay
(C) Reclassification
(D) Measuring distance and connectivity
Answer: (A)
59. Ultrafiltration can remove
(A) Suspended solids
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
60. A good automobile fuel, in addition to having high calorific value, should have
(A) High ignition temperature
(B) High viscosity
(C) Low ignition temperature
(D) Moderate ignition temperature
Answer: (D)
61. Reserve food material in algae is
(A) Starch
(B) Cellulose
(C) Protein
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
62. The biodegradability of xenobiotics can be characterized by
(A) Rate of CO2 formation
(B) Rate of O2 consumption
(C) Ratio of BOD to COD
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
63. The soil borne plant pathogens could be controlled by
(A) Lowering pH
(B) Increasing pH
(C) Adding lime
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
64. A selective Lignin degrading fungus belongs to
(A) Soft – rot
(B) Brown – rot
(C) White – rot
(D) Red – rot
Answer: (C)
65. The drastic reduction in the number of intestinal pathogens during activated sludge process is the overall result of
(A) Competition
(B) Competition and adsorption
(C) Predation, competition and adsorption
(D) Competition, adsorption, predation and settling
Answer: (D)
66. Which of the following disinfection method does not result in synthesis of organochlorine?
(A) Chlorination
(B) Chloroamination
(C) Ozonation
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
67. An organism’s niche is
(A) The way the organism uses the range of physical and biological conditions in which it lives.
(B) All the biological and physical factors in the organism’s environment.
(C) The function role played by the organism where it lives.
(D) The range of temperature that the organism needs to live.
Answer: (C)
68. The pyramid of biomass is invented in
(A) Forest ecosystem
(B) Greenland ecosystem
(C) Aquatic ecosystem
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
69. Which of the following chemicals of anthropogenic origin mimics the effect of estrogen in animals?
(A) Alkyl phenol
(B) Polychlorinated biphenyl
(C) O, p’ – DDT
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
70. “Black Foot” disease in human beings caused due to use of water contaminated with
(A) Mercury
(B) Cadmium
(C) Silver
(D) Arsenic
Answer: (D)
71. Largest amount of fresh water is present in
(A) Lakes
(B) Rivers
(C) Glaciers
(D) Polar Ice
Answer: (D)
72. A threatened species is
(A) Only endangered species
(B) Only vulnerable species
(C) Only rare species
(D) all of the above
Answer: (D)
73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Animals adopt various strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason (R): Praying mantis is green in color which emerges with plant foliage.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, with (R) being the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)
74. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Increasing temperature in the environment influences gonadal growth in fish.
Reason (R): Increase in day length causes increase in environmental temperature in summer.
Choose the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer: (A)
75. Match Column – I with Column – II:
Column – I Column – II
a. The Rio Summit 1. 1997
b. Johannesburg Earth Summit 2. 1972
c. Kyoto Protocol 3. 1992
d. The Stockholm Conference 4. 2002
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Answer: (A)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Environmental Sciences was of descriptive type till December 2011.
paper-3 becomes objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper-3 was stopped and becomes part of paper-2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
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