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NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2018 July 22
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The UGC NET Examination of 8th July 2018 was re-conducted in a certain centre on 22nd July 2018 by the CBSE. Kindly find herewith the answer keys along with the question papers of the examination held on 22nd July 2018 of Series-W.
The answer keys are as per the revised answer keys released after grievances by the CBSE. Kindly note that nowadays the UGC NET Examination is conducted by National Testing Agency (NTA) instead of CBSE or UGC.
1. From the following list of statements, select those which indicate the characteristics and basic requirements of teaching.
(i) Teaching implies communication.
(ii) Teaching is like selling goods.
(iii) Teaching means managing and monitoring.
(iv) Teaching implies influencing others.
(v) Teaching requires convincing others.
(vi) There can be no teaching without infrastructural support.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (1)
2. What is the purpose underlying the use of teaching aids?
(1) To make the lessons interesting
(2) To capture the students’ attention
(3) To enhance access to technological resources
(4) To optimise learning outcomes
Answer: (4)
3. In the two lists given below, List I provides the list of teaching methods, while List II indicates the factors helpful in rendering them effective. Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
| List I (Teaching methods) | List II (Factors helpful in making them effective) |
| (a) Expository method | (i) Trust and openness in relationship |
| (b) Investigative method | (ii) Freedom to choose a theme and scope for frank exchange of ideas |
| (c) Discussion method | (iii) Creating a challenge to address the problems |
| (d) Personalised method | (iv) Systematic, step-by-step presentation |
| — | (v) Maximising infrastructural support |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (1)
4. Below are given statements pertaining to evaluation systems. Identify those which correctly explain them.
(i) Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) focuses on a delimited domain of learning tasks.
(ii) Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) requires a clearly defined group.
(iii) Formative tests are given at the end of a course.
(iv) Both Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) and Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) use the same type of test items.
(v) Summative tests are used regularly during teaching transactions.
(vi) Mastery tests are examples of Norm-Referenced Testing.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (2)
5. In the list given below, identify those key teaching behaviours which have been observed to be contributive to effectiveness.
(i) Lesson clarity
(ii) Probing
(iii) Teacher-task orientation
(iv) Student success rate
(v) Instructional variety
(vi) Using student ideas
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (3)
6. Identify the correct order of the following components which are interrelated in research.
(i) Observation
(ii) Hypothesis making
(iii) Developing concepts
(iv) Deducing the consequences of theories
(v) Methods employed to obtain them
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv), (v), (iii), (ii) and (i)
Answer: (2)
7. In the list given below, identify those statements which correctly describe the meaning and characteristics of research.
(i) Research is a method of improving our common sense.
(ii) Deductive and inductive methods get integrated in a research process.
(iii) Research is creativity and charisma.
(iv) Research is the use of scientific method to provide answers to meaningful questions.
(v) Method of consulting and using experience is called research.
(vi) The answers provided by research can be empirically verified.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (iii) and (v)
Answer: (1)
8. In the two lists given below, List I provides the types of research methods, while List II indicates the critical features associated with them. Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
| List I (Research methods) | List II (Critical features) |
| (a) Ex-post facto method | (i) Finding out the status based on a study of a large sample |
| (b) Case study method | (ii) Interpretation of thoughts of a great thinker |
| (c) Philosophical method | (iii) Intervention based ameliorative approach |
| (d) Descriptive survey method | (iv) Causal comparison and correlational studies |
| (v) In-depth study of a unit specified for the purpose |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (v)
(4) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
Answer: (4)
9. A researcher uses parametric test in lieu of non-parametric test for analysis and interpretation of results. This may be described as a case of
(1) Unethical research practice
(2) Malpractice in reporting of results
(3) Technical lapse in handling data
(4) Manipulation of research results
Answer: (3)
10. Which of the following provides more latitude to the researcher for creative expression ?
(1) Thesis writing
(2) Writing of a research article
(3) Presentation of a conference paper
(4) Preparing a research synopsis
Answer: (3)
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions no. 11 to 15.
Some 2000 km down south of the Amazon, and about the same time when the tidal waves were at their highest as a consequence of the big clash of sea and fresh water at the Amazon delta most vigorously in March and April (2018), more than 40,000 people were talking about the power of water. Brasilia hosted the eighth edition of the World Water Forum (WWF – 8), where heads of states, civil societies and private sector gathered to discuss the present and future of mankind’s most valuable resource. This year’s theme was ‘Sharing Water’, and the government authorities expectedly put forth a political declaration, aimed at raising awareness about threats and opportunities associated with water resources. Deliberations here would play a decisive role in the periodic assessment of the sustainable development goals of Agenda 2030.
Brazil has established a solid institutional and legal framework for water management, based on the principle of multi-stakeholder participation. Brazil has also been conducting one of the boldest river inter-linking projects in which 500 km of canals will transfer abundant waters from the Sāo Francisco basin to small rivers and weirs in one of Brazil’s most arid areas, benefitting more than 12 million people in almost 400 municipalities.
India, too, has a large variety of water resources. An institutional framework consisting of regional river boards and river cleansing missions has been set up, while successive Central Governments have made efforts to address the dire needs of irrigation and mitigation of ground water depletion. As in the case of Brazil, a lot remains to be done in India.
Adequate treatment of industrial waste-water, the fight against contamination of riverbeds and assistance to drought affected areas are high priority topics for both New Delhi and Brasilia. Due to these commonalities, there is ample room for bilateral co-operation. Water is a local, regional and global common and as such, collaboration is key to address most of its associated threats.
Today, mankind is faced with two facts: water is too powerful a force to be fought over, and too valuable a resource to be lost. To harmonise these two conflicting aspects, sharing water is perhaps the only meaningful motto for the ages to come.
11. As per the text of the passage, the eighth edition of the World Water Forum was concerned with
(1) Present and future of mankind
(2) The issue of high tidal waves
(3) The power of water
(4) The role of civil society in solving water-related problems
Answer: (3)
12. Deliberations on the theme ‘Sharing Water’ should facilitate
(1) Regular evaluation of sustainable development goals
(2) The role of private sector in preserving water resources
(3) The establishment of institutional framework
(4) Sensitisation of government authorities
Answer: (1)
13. The institutional framework of Brazil for water management
(1) Promotes bilateral collaboration
(2) Provides for multi-stakeholder participation
(3) Consists of regional river boards
(4) Addresses legal dimensions of water sharing
Answer: (2)
14. What would be of high priority to both New Delhi and Brasilia as regards river water ?
(1) Proposing water as a global common
(2) Sharing water
(3) Development of large water resources
(4) Fight against contamination of riverbeds
Answer: (4)
15. The main focus of the passage is on
(1) Resolution of water conflicts
(2) Encouraging bilateral co-operation
(3) Management of water as a valuable resource
(4) River inter-linking
Answer: (3)
16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Meanings of messages used in the classroom are arbitrary in nature.
Reason (R): Meanings are learnt as a result of one’s prior experiences.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)
17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Classroom communication has a cultural dimension.
Reason (R): Beliefs, habits, customs and languages are the cultural characteristics of communication.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)
18. In a classroom, teachers and students use self-interest issues to judge
(1) Their acceptability
(2) Uncritical dispositions
(3) Negative re-inforcement of ideas
(4) External non-verbal cues
Answer: (1)
19. Variables that affect the information processing in a classroom are
(i) Perception levels
(ii) Learned habits
(iii) Attitudes, beliefs and values
(iv) Selectivity factor
(v) Market expectation
(vi) Institutional intervention
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (4)
20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Assertion (A): Selective exposure in the classroom is dependent upon students’
perceptions and knowledge about the source of information.
Reason (R): The effectiveness of the communication source determines the selective exposure of students to information.
Code:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (1)
21. The next term in the series 5, 11, 21, 35, 53, ?, … is
(1) 75
(2) 90
(3) 115
(4) 125
Answer: (1)
22. The next term in the series XY, ABC, FGHI, ? , … is
(1) MNPQO
(2) MNOPQ
(3) PQOMN
(4) NMPOQ
Answer: (2)
23. If the code of ALLAHABAD is DPQGOIKKO, then the code of BENGULURU will be
(1) ESBTBDIMF
(2) MBDBFEIST
(3) EISMBTDBF
(4) ESBDFBTMI
Answer: (3)
24. A man paid Rs. 160 while travelling 10 km in a taxi which has some initial fixed charges. Another man paid Rs. 276 for travelling 16 km and the taxi driver charged double of the initial fixed charges from him. The charges of the taxi per km is
(1) Rs. 10
(2) Rs. 13
(3) Rs. 11
(4) Rs. 17
Answer: (3)
25. Gopal walks 20 m North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Again he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he again turns left and walks 15 m. The shortest distance between his original position and final one is
(1) 65 m
(2) 55 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 45 m
Answer: (4)
26. Choose the proper alternative given in the code to replace the question mark.
Cow – Milk
Bee – Honey
Teacher – ?
Code:
(1) Marks
(2) Discipline
(3) Wisdom
(4) Lesson
Answer: (3)
27. Among the following, two statements are related in such a way that if one becomes undetermined, the other will also be undetermined. Select the code that refers to these two statements.
Statements:
(i) Every fruit is nutritious.
(ii) Fruits are hardly nutritious.
(iii) Fruits are mostly nutritious.
(iv) Some food items are nutritious.
Code:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (1)
28. Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them.
Select the code that embodies validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All saints are noble.
(b) Some religious men are saints.
Conclusions:
(i) Some religious men are noble.
(ii) All religious men are noble.
(iii) Some saints are religious men.
(iv) All noble persons are saints.
Code:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (3)
29. Which one is not correct in the context of deductive and inductive reasoning?
(1) A deductive argument makes the claim that its conclusion is supported by its premises conclusively.
(2) A valid deductive argument may have all false premises and true conclusion.
(3) An inductive argument claims the probability of its conclusion.
(4) An inductive argument cannot provide us any new information about matters of fact.
Answer: (4)
30. When the purpose of the definition is to explain some established use of a term, the definition is called
(1) Stipulative
(2) Lexical
(3) Persuasive
(4) Theoretical
Answer: (2)
Consider the following two tables (I and II) that indicate the percentage of employees working in various departments of an organization along with the ratio of men to women in the same departments. The total number of employees in the organization is 4600. Based on these tables I and II, answer the questions that follow (Questions no. 31 – 35):
I: Percentage of Employees Department wise
| Name of the Department | Percentage of Employees (%) |
| IT | 26 |
| Marketing | 22 |
| Purchase | 18 |
| HR | 11 |
| Accounts | 8 |
| Production | 15 |
II: Gender Ratio of Employees
| Name of the Department |
Ratio |
|
| Men | Women | |
| IT | 1 | 3 |
| Marketing | 1 | 1 |
| Purchase | 5 | 1 |
| HR | 1 | 1 |
| Accounts | 3 | 1 |
| Production | 3 | 2 |
31. What is the total number of women in the Accounts department?
(1) 86
(2) 102
(3) 80
(4) 92
Answer: (4)
32. What is the total number of employees working in the IT and HR departments together ?
(1) 1628
(2) 1646
(3) 1766
(4) 1702
Answer: (4)
33. What is the ratio of the total number of men to total number of women working in all the departments put together?
(1) 63 : 41
(2) 41 : 27
(3) 53 : 47
(4) 27 : 19
Answer: (3)
34. The number of women in the Purchase department forms what percentage of the total number of employees in the organization?
(1) 3%
(2) 6%
(3) 1%
(4) 12%
Answer: (1)
35. What is the ratio of the number of men in the Production department to the number of men in the Marketing department ?
(1) 7 : 3
(2) 9 : 11
(3) 13 : 7
(4) 11 : 9
Answer: (2)
36. Which of the following statement(s) regarding the term ICT is/are true?
P: A digital divide is an economic and social equality with regard to access to, use of, or impact of ICT.
Q: ICT helps in international development by bridging the digital divide and providing equitable access to technologies.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Answer: (2)
37. A confidential file needs to be deleted from a workstation. Which is the most effective way to ensure this?
(1) Rename the file
(2) Compress the file and back-up to tape
(3) Copy and paste the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin
(4) Drag the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin
Answer: (4)
38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with regard to websites?
P: A blog is a website that consists of posts in reverse chronological order.
Q: A wiki is a website that is designed to allow people to collaborate easily.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
Answer: (3)
39. In the context of e-mail, what is ‘spam’?
(1) The act of overloading an e-mail server by using denial-of-service attacks
(2) E-mail messages that are infected with viruses
(3) A large quantity of messages that do not reach the recipient
(4) Unsolicited advertising sent to a large number of recipients
Answer: (4)
40. A virus type that is capable of shifting from one computer to another without user interaction is known as a
(1) Worm
(2) Trojan
(3) Logic bomb
(4) Boot sector
Answer: (1)
41. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are formally known as
(1) Transforming Our World: 2030 Agenda
(2) Sustainable Living For All: 22 Agenda
(3) Life Of Dignity For All: 22 Agenda
(4) One Planet, One People: 2030 Agenda
Answer: (1)
42. An earthquake of a magnitude in the range of 6·0 – 6·9 on the Richter Scale is considered
(1) Moderate
(2) Strong
(3) Major
(4) Great
Answer: (2)
43. Frequent episodes of dense smog in winter season in the National Capital Region (NCR) can be attributed to
(i) Stubble burning
(ii) Biomass burning in rural households
(iii) Transport
(iv) Transboundary movement of pollutants
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (4)
44. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) comprises of
(i) Household waste
(ii) Sanitation residue
(iii) Waste from streets
(iv) Construction and demolition debris
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (4)
45. As per the Indian Government’s target for exploiting renewable energy sources, the percentage share of solar and wind energy in the total power generation from renewable energy sources by the year 22 will be about
(1) ~ 91·43%
(2) ~ 57·14%
(3) ~ 50%
(4) ~ 60%
Answer: (1)
46. The mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC) includes
(i) Disbursing grants to Universities and colleges
(ii) Recognising and monitoring technical institutions
(iii) Funding research centres in Universities
(iv) Managing various scholarship programmes
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (2)
47. Which one of the following States is going to have India’s first National Rail and Transportation University?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Bihar
(4) Gujarat
Answer: (4)
48. The Citizen’s Charter is an instrument which seeks to make an organisation
(i) Transparent
(ii) Accountable
(iii) Formal
(iv) Accessible
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (3)
49. The Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election, if
(1) he/she himself/herself is a candidate
(2) he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister
(3) he/she has a criminal case pending against him/her
(4) he/she is a nominated member of the State Legislative Assembly
Answer: (4)
50. In the QS World Rankings (2018), which of the following Indian Universities is/are among the top 500 Universities?
(i) University of Delhi
(ii) University of Hyderabad
(iii) Banaras Hindu University
(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru University
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(1) (i) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (1)
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
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Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers PDF
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NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2020 June
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NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2018 July 22
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Advantages of Solving NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2018 July 22
Solving the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2018 July 22 play an important role to score good marks in the UGC NET Exams.
The following are the importance of the Previous Year’s Question Papers:
- Solving NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2018 July 22 will help the students to understand the pattern of questions that can be asked in the examination.
- It helps you to improve your accuracy rate and time-management skill.
- Solving the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2018 July 22 will help you to boost your confidence and self-analyze your mistakes.
- The previous year’s papers will help you to know all the important questions that were asked in the Board examinations. Thus, you can give more emphasis on those topics.
- NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2018 July 22 will prepare students for the main examination as they will get a clear idea about the marking pattern and the level of difficulty of the examination.
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