NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2012 December: Referring to the UGC NET Paper 1 Previous Year Question Papers are one of the most effective strategies that aspirants can approach in order to secure a good score in the upcoming UGC NET Paper 1 Examination.
You must have NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers along with the latest Paper 1 Syllabus to enhance your semester exam preparation.
Here we have provided you with the complete guide on NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2012 December.
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers are considered the best study materials to score good marks in the paper 1 exam.
Practicing these NTA UGC NET Paper 1 previous year question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2012 December.
1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare
(B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense
Answer: (A)
2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses is known as
(A) Mass line communication
(B) Group communication
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication
Answer: (A)
3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as
(A) Transpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (A)
4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Indian Express
(C) The Hindu
(D) The Deccan Herald
Answer: (A)
5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was
(A) K.A. Abbas
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke
Answer: (D)
6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Power equation
Answer: (B)
7. The missing number in the series :
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A) 240
(B) 220
(C) 280
(D) 210
Answer: (D)
8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(A) 80
(B) 100
(C) 90
(D) 110
Answer: (B)
9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is
(A) 4
(B) 15/2
(C) 15/4
(D) 6
Answer: (C)
10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by
(A) AMSLR
(B) MSLAR
(C) MASRL
(D) SAMLR
Answer: (A)
11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are
(A) 30, 20
(B) 35, 15
(C) 38, 12
(D) 40, 10
Answer: (A)
12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (X), C means divided by (/) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
Answer: (D)
13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion–II and select the right code given below:
Assertion–I: Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.
Assertion–II: The difference of skin-colour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.
Answer: (B)
14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest.
(D) All of the above.
Answer: (A)
15. A stipulative definition is
(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false
Answer: (D)
16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor –?
(A) Customer
(B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple
Answer: (D)
17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A) I & II
(B) II & III
(C) III & IV
(D) II & IV
Answer: (C)
18. Choose the right code:
A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes:
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :
Government Expenditures on Social Services
(As percent of total expenditure)
19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than
5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate?
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10
(D) 2010-11
Answer: (B)
21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures?
(A) North-eastern areas
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting
(D) Social welfare and nutrition
Answer: (C)
22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years?
(A) Information & broadcasting
(B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment
(D) Social welfare & nutrition
Answer: (D)
23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Overall social services
Answer: (B)
24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?
(A) Labour and employment
(B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Education, sports & youth affairs
Answer: (A)
25. ALU stands for
(A) American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Answer: (D)
26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
Answer: (D)
27. Computer Virus is a
(A) Hardware
(B) Bacteria
(C) Software
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
28. Which one of the following is correct?
(A) (17)10 = (17)16
(B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10 = (10001)2
Answer: (D)
29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is _______.
(A) .pdf
(B) .doc
(C) .docx
(D) .txt
Answer: (C)
30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.
(A) TCP
(B) FTP
(C) SMTP
(D) POP
Answer: (D)
31. Which of the following is a source of methane?
(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants
(D) Cement Industry
Answer: (A)
32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to
(A) Lead
(B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium
(D) Zinc
Answer: (B)
33. Biomagnification means increase in the
(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass
Answer: (A)
34. Nagoya Protocol is related to
(A) Climate change
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste
(D) Biodiversity
Answer: (D)
35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy
Answer: (C)
36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies
(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.
Answer: (A)
37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index?
(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio
(D) Life Expectancy
Answer: (C)
38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after
(A) the U.K.
(B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia
(D) Canada
Answer: (B)
39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 3 only
Answer: (A)
40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim
3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)
41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (A)
43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have
(A) ability to learn only
(B) requisite level of motivation only
(C) opportunities to learn only
(D) desired level of ability and motivation
Answer: (D)
44. Classroom communication must be
(A) Teacher centric
(B) Student centric
(C) General centric
(D) Textbook centric
Answer: (B)
45. The best method of teaching is to
(A) impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference material
(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it
Answer: (D)
46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate
(A) Argument
(B) Information
(C) Ideas
(D) Controversy
Answer: (C)
47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.
Answer: (C)
48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A) Interpersonal
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (C)
49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(A) Impact factor
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-index
Answer: (A)
50. Good ‘research ethics’ means
(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.
Answer: (B)
51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Answer: (D)
52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
Answer: (A)
53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :
1. Identification of research problem
2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
Answer: (B)
54. Identify the incorrect statement:
(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.
Answer: (D)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60):
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.
55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Neutral
(D) Unspecified
Answer: (B)
56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million
(B) 40 million
(C) 50 million
(D) 60 million
Answer: (A)
57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in
(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.
Answer: (A)
58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization
(B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement
Answer: (C)
60. In the above passage, the author intends to state
(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress
(D) the limits to growth
Answer: (D)
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers
To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Paper 1, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2012 December. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
|
Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers PDF
|
|
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2020 June
|
|
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
|
Benefits of NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
- NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2012 December can help the aspirants to have a good idea about the structure of the question paper. It will also help them estimate the difficulty of the question paper.
- Solving the question paper will also help the student to estimate the weightage on each topic and study it accordingly.
- Candidates appearing for the UGC NET Paper 1 exam can also improve in other important attributes like time management, ability to solve tricky questions, and keep an eye out on details.
We have covered the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2012 December. If you have any questions about NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers, please let us know in the comment section.