NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Paper 1, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2006 June. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.
You must have NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers along with the latest Paper 1 Syllabus to enhance your semester exam preparation.
Here we have provided you with the complete guide on NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June.
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers are considered the best study materials to score good marks in the paper 1 exam.
Practicing these NTA UGC NET Paper 1 previous year question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June.
|
1. Which of the following comprise teaching skill? (A) Black Board writing (B) Questioning (C) Explaining (D) All the above Answer: (D) 2. Which of the following statements is most appropriate? (A) Teachers can teach. (B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn. (C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking. (D) Teachers are born. Answer: (B) 3. The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was: (A) Megasthanese (B) Fahiyan (C) Huan Tsang (D) Kalhan Answer: (D) 4. Which of the following statements is correct? (A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum. (B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum. (C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university. (D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university. Answer: (A) 5. Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding? (I) Define noun. (II) Define noun in your own words. (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II Answer: (B) 6. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society? (I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge. (II) to discover new things. (III) to write a critique on the earlier writings. (IV) to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources with objectivity. (A) IV, II and I (B) I, II and III (C) I and III (D) II, III and IV Answer: (A) 7. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given below: List – I (Interviews) List – II (Meaning) (a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility approach (b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the questions to be answered (c) Focused interviews (iii) individual life experience (d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question (v) non-directive Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (C) (v) (ii) (iv) (i) (D) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) Answer: (A) 8. What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research? (A) To bring out holistic approach to research. (B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain. (C) To over simplify the problem of research. (D) To create a new trend in research methodology. Answer: (A) 9. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to: (A) improve data interpretation (B) eliminate spurious relations (C) confirm triangulation (D) introduce new variables Answer: (B) 10. The depth of any research can be judged by: (A) title of the research. (B) objectives of the research. (C) total expenditure on the research. (D) duration of the research. Answer: (B) Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15: The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice – President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the commission. 11. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions: (A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged. (B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics. (C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates. (D) This would ensure fair and free elections. Answer: (D) 12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority. This is under Article No. (A) 324 (B) 356 (C) 246 (D) 161 Answer: (A) 13. Independence of the Commission means: (A) have a constitutional status. (B) have legislative powers. (C) have judicial powers. (D) have political powers. Answer: (A) 14. Fair and free election means: (A) transparency (B) to maintain law and order (C) regional considerations (D) role for pressure groups Answer: (B) 15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article : (A) 125 (B) 352 (C) 226 (D) 324 Answer: (D) 16. The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as: (A) content supply (B) surveillance (C) gratification (D) correlation Answer: (A) 17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is known as: (A) cybernetics (B) reverse communication (C) selectivity study (D) response analysis Answer: (A) 18. Networked media exist in inter-connected: (A) social environments (B) economic environments (C) political environments (D) technological environments Answer: (D) 19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as: (A) online communication (B) integrated media (C) digital combine (D) convergence Answer: (D) 20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs simultaneously in various forms is described as: (A) man-machine speak (B) binary chat (C) digital talk (D) interactivity Answer: (D) 21. Insert the missing number: 16/32, 15 /33, 17/31, 14/34 ? (A) 19/35 (B) 19/30 (C) 18/35 (D) 18/30 Answer: (D) 22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November 1994? (A) Thursday (B) Sunday (C) Tuesday (D) Saturday Answer: (A) 23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is: (A) 36 (B) 32 (C) 30 (D) 28 Answer: (C) 24. In a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the same code? (A) VNLDM (B) FHQKN (C) XPNFO (D) VLNDM Answer: (A) 25. At what time between 4 and 5 O’clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions? (A) 45 min. past 4 (B) 40 min. past 4 (C) 50 4/11 min. past 4 (D) 54 6/11 min. past 4 Answer: (D) 26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below? Statement: Most teachers are hard working. Conclusions: (I) Some teachers are hard working. (II) Some teachers are not hard working. (A) Only (I) is implied (B) Only (II) is implied (C) Both (I) and (II) are implied (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied Answer: (C) 27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament? (A) Any MLA (B) Chief of Army Staff (C) Solicitor General of India (D) Mayor of Delhi Answer: (C) 28. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below? Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence. Conclusions: (I) Some Indian States existed before independence. (II) All Indian States did not exist before independence. (A) only (I) is implied (B) only (II) is implied (C) Both (I) and (II) are implied (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied Answer: (B) 29. Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it: (A) reduces the shear strength of rocks (B) increases the weight of the overburden (C) enhances chemical weathering (D) is a universal solvent Answer: (B) 30. Direction for this question: Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i) and (ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below the conclusion : Statements: (a) all businessmen are wealthy. (b) all wealthy people are hard working. Conclusions: (i) All businessmen are hard working. (ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy (A) Only (i) follows (B) Only (ii) follows (C) Only (i) and (ii) follows (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows Answer: (A) 31. Using websites to pour out one’s grievances is called: (A) cyber venting (B) cyber ranting (C) web hate (D) web plea Answer: (A) 32. In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant information is termed: (A) poor recall (B) web crawl (C) poor precision rate (D) poor web response Answer: (A) 33. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from: (A) virtual reality (B) fuzzy logic (C) Bluetooth technology (D) value added networks Answer: (D) 34. Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet applicance is called: (A) voice net (B) voice telephone (C) voice line (D) voice portal Answer: (C) 35. Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed livecasting is called: (A) virtual video (B) direct broadcast (C) video shift (D) real-time video Answer: (D) 36. Which is the smallest North-east State in India? (A) Tripura (B) Meghalaya (C) Mizoram (D) Manipur Answer: (A) 37. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to: (A) high evaporation (B) sea water flooding due to tsunami (C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells (D) seepage of sea water Answer: (D) 38. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these two rivers: (A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys (B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west (C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west (D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east Answer: (A) 39. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta because of: (A) erosion of top soils by annual floods (B) inundation of land by sea water (C) traditional agriculture practices (D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland Answer: (A) 40. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of India? (A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi (B) Mythic Society, Bangalore (C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi (D) India International Centre, New Delhi Answer: (C) 41. Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Answer: (A) 42. ‘SITE’ stands for: (A) System for International technology and Engineering (B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (C) South Indian Trade Estate (D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering Answer: (B) 43. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for ‘Conducting Research at Antarctic? (A) Dakshin Gangotri (B) Yamunotri (C) Uttari Gangotri (D) None of the above Answer: (A) 44. Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes: (A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy (B) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education (C) Department of Women and Child Development (D) All the above Answer: (D) 45. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list: (A) With the prior permission of the President. (B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably. (C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures. (D) At the request of two or more States. Answer: (D) The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various sports during a particular year. Study the pie chart and answer it Question Number 46 to 50.  46. The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on hockey is: (A) 1:15 (B) 1:1 (C) 15:1 (D) 3:20 Answer: (B) 47. if the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 how much was spent on basket ball? (A) Rs. 9,50,000 (B) Rs. 10,00,000 (C) Rs. 12,00,000 (D) Rs. 15,00,000 Answer: (D) 48. The chart shows that the most popular game of the country is : (A) Hockey (B) Football (C) Cricket (D) Tennis Answer: (C) 49. Out of the following country’s expenditure is the same on : (A) Hockey and Tennis (B) Golf and Basket ball (C) Cricket and Football (D) Hockey and Golf Answer: (B) 50. If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000 the expenditure on cricket and hockey together was: (A) Rs. 60,00,000 (B) Rs. 50,00,000 (C) Rs. 37,50,000 (D) Rs. 25,00,000 Answer: (A) |
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
|
Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers PDF
|
|
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2020 June
|
|
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June
|
Benefits of Solving NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June
- Solving NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June can help the aspirants to have a good idea about the structure of the question paper. It will also help them estimate the difficulty of the question paper.
- Solving the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June will also help the student to estimate the weightage on each topic and study it accordingly.
- Candidates appearing for the UGC NET paper 1 exam can also improve in other important attributes like time management, ability to solve tricky questions, and keep an eye out on details.
We have covered the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2006 June. If you have any questions about NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers, please let us know in the comment section.