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NTA UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June
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1. If Opening Stock is Rs. 10,000, Net Purchases Rs. 70,000, Wages Rs. 2,500, Carriage inward Rs. 500 and closing Stock Rs. 15,000, what is the Manufacturing Cost?
(A) Rs. 65,000
(B) Rs. 83,000
(C) Rs. 68,000
(D) Rs. 73,000
Answers: (C)
2. What does a high payout ratio indicate?
(A) A High Earning Per Share (EPS)
(B) The management is not ploughing back enough profit.
(C) The management is ploughing back profit.
(D) The company is earning high profit.
Answers: (B)
3. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Capital expenditure does not affect the profitability of a concern but revenue expenditure does.
(B) Capital expenditure affects the profitability of a concern directly but revenue expenditure does not.
(C) Capital expenditure affects the profitability of a concern indirectly but revenue expenditure affects directly.
(D) Both capital expenditure and revenue expenditure affect the profitability of a concern directly.
Answers: (C)
4. Identify the true statement of the following:
(i) Balance Sheet is always prepared from the point of view of the business but not from that of the owners.
(ii) The financial relationship of the business to its owners is shown in the Balance Sheet.
(iii) Balance Sheet is always related to a period of time.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answers: (A)
5. X and Y are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratios of 2: 1. Z is admitted with a 1/3 profit sharing. What will be the new profit sharing ratio of X, Y and Z?
(A) 3: 3: 3
(B) 4: 3: 2
(C) 4: 2: 3
(D) 2: 3: 4
Answers: (C)
6. Which one of the following will not affect the working capital?
(A) Realization of cash from debtors.
(B) Sale of plant and machinery in cash.
(C) Issue of equity shares.
(D) Redemption of debentures.
Answers: (A)
7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): When a company earns profit prior to its incorporation, it is called capital profit.
Reason (R): Capital profit cannot be used for distribution as dividend to the shareholders.
In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answers: (B)
8. Reconstruction of a company takes place when
(i) The company is undercapitalized
(ii) Company has incurred heavy losses which must be written off
(iii) The company is overcapitalized
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) All the above
Answers: (C)
9. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
(a) Leverage Ratio (i) Short-term solvency
(b) Liquidity Ratio (ii) Earning capacity
(c) Turnover Ratio (iii) Relationship between debt and equity
(d) Profitability Ratio (iv) Efficiency of Asset Management
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Answers: (D)
10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Sinking fund is a charge against Profit and Loss Account.
Reason (R): Sinking fund is created for repayment of a long term liability.
In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answers: (B)
11. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
(a) Goodwill of a company (i) Current liability
(b) Overdraft (ii) Fixed Assets
(c) Preliminary Expenses (iii) Reserves and Surplus
(d) Premium on Issue of Shares (iv) Fictitious Assets
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answers: (A)
12. In India, which of the following is prepared on the guidelines of AS-3 (Accounting Standard – 3)?
(A) Balance Sheet of a Company
(B) Funds Flow Statement
(C) Cash Flow Statement
(D) Consolidated Financial Statement
Answers: (C)
13. What is the correct sequence of the following actions required for the preparation of financial accounts?
(i) Trading accounts
(ii) Making adjusting entries
(iii) Balance Sheet
(iv) Profit and Loss Account
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
Answers: (C)
14. The main effect of inflation on the financial statement is
(A) Profits are understated
(B) Overstatement of Assets
(C) Adequacy of funds for replacement of assets
(D) Erosion of capital
Answers: (D)
15. Present value of future earnings is a model of Human Resources Accounting suggested by
(A) Brauch Lev & ABA Schwartz
(B) Jaggi & Lau
(C) S.K. Chakraborty
(D) Eric Flamhaltz
Answers: (A)
16. Which element of the promotion mix do wholesalers generally apply to obtain their promotional objective?
(A) Advertising
(B) Personal Selling
(C) Trade Promotion
(D) Direct Marketing
Answers: (C)
17. Who has given ‘fourteen Principles of Management’?
(A) Barnard
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F.W. Taylor
(D) Flemming
Answers: (B)
18. What is M.B.O?
(A) Management by Objective
(B) Multiple Business Organization
(C) Management by Organization
(D) Multiplicity of Business Operations
Answers: (A)
19. Match items in List – II with items in List – I:
List – I List – II
I. Mega Marketing 1. Advertising
II. PenetrationPrice 2. Kotler
III. Promotion Mix 3. Low price
IV. Customer Satisfaction 4. Post Purchase Behaviour
Codes:
1 2 3 4
(A) I II III IV
(B) III I II IV
(C) IV III II I
(D) III IV I II
Answers: (B)
20. Statement (A): Sales promotion has a strong impact on consumer behaviour in rural India.
Reason (R): Rural people in India give utmost significance to sales promotion schemes.
Codes:
(A) Statement (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
(C) Both Statement (A) and Reason (R) are correct.
(D) Both Statement (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect.
Answers: (A)
21. Market sub-divided on the basis of behavioural characteristics is called
(A) Segmentation
(B) Aggregation
(C) Precision
(D) None of the above
Answers: (A)
22. What is mass marketing?
(A) Offering the same products and marketing mix to all consumers.
(B) Offering variety of products to the entire market.
(C) Offering differentiated products to all customers.
(D) Following concentrated marketing strategy.
Answers: (A)
23. Which concept of marketing is based on the assumption that superior products sell themselves?
(A) Production
(B) Marketing
(C) Societal
(D) Product
Answers: (D)
24. In broader sense, marketing communication includes
(A) Product
(B) Price
(C) Place
(D) All
Answers: (D)
25. Physical distribution provides
(A) Place utility
(B) Time utility
(C) Place and Time utility
(D) Form utility
Answers: (C)
26. What is relevant to place variable of marketing mix?
(A) Branding
(B) Price penetration
(C) Sales personnel motivation
(D) None
Answers: (C)
27. Find incorrect statement:
(A) Marketers arouse emotional motives
(B) Marketers satisfy rational motives
(C) Marketers formulate different sales promotions for different motives
(D) None of the above
Answers: (D)
28. Non-store marketing includes
(A) Home selling
(B) V.P.P.
(C) Vending Machines
(D) All of the above
Answers: (D)
29. What is customer delight?
(A) Performance equal to expectation
(B) Performance less than expectation
(C) Performance more than expectation
(D) Expectation more than performance
Answers: (A)
30. Which terms are often used interchangeably in marketing literature?
(A) Concept, method, philosophy
(B) Concept, approach, technique
(C) Orientation, concept, philosophy
(D) Philosophy, system, concept
Answers: (C)
31. Which one of the following is not the operative function of HRM?
(A) Development
(B) Controlling
(C) Compensation
(D) Integration
Answers: (B)
32. Which one of the following is not in sequence of personnel training procedure?
1. Instructor Preparation
2. Present the task
3. Try out performance
4. Training preparation
5. Follow up
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
(D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
Answers: (C)
33. Under which method of performance appraisal one person is compared with all others for the purpose of placing them in a simple order of work?
(A) Grading
(B) Person to Person comparison
(C) Ranking
(D) None of the above
Answers: (C)
34. Which one of the following is not the fundamental procedure that should be considered for the collective bargaining?
(A) Prenegotiation phase
(B) Selection of Negotiators
(C) Tactic and Strategy of Bargaining
(D) None of the above
Answers: (D)
35. Assertion (A): Inevitably the firm must go to the external sources for lower entry jobs.
Reason (R): For positions where required qualification/ experience are not met.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Answers: (D)
36. Match the following items of List – I and List – II:
List – I List – II
1. Asbestos I. Lung Cancer
2. Benzene II. Cancer
3. Ethylene Disbromide III. Leukemia
4. Kerosene IV. Acute Nervous System Depression
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answers: (C)
37. Assertion (A): Business Economics is tool centric facilitating decision making in business.
Reason (R): It provides an analytical understanding of economic activities.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answers: (B)
38. Demand has the following elements:
(A) Quantity
(B) Price
(C) Time
(D) All the above
Answers: (D)
39. A perfectly competitive firm attains equilibrium when
(A) AC = AR
(B) MR = MC
(C) MC = AC
(D) TC = TR
Answers: (B)
40. The purpose of job evaluation is
(A) Fixation of Responsibility
(B) Promotion
(C) Wage Determination
(D) Transfer to a better job
Answers: (C)
41. For testing of hypothesis H0: M1 = M2 and H1: M1 < M2, the critical value of Z at 5% level of significance when size of sample is more than 30 is
(A) 1.96
(B) 2.32
(C) 1.645
(D) 2.5758
Answers: (C)
42. Which of the following is the nonrandom method of selecting samples from a population?
(A) Stratified Sampling
(B) Quota Sampling
(C) Systematic Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answers: (B)
43. If the two regression coefficients are 0.8 and 0.2, then the value of coefficient of correlation is
(A) + 0.16
(B) – 0.40
(C) – 0.16
(D) + 0.40
Answers: (D)
44. Which one of the following is a relative measure of dispersion?
(A) Standard deviation
(B) Variance
(C) Coefficient of variation
(D) None of the above
Answers: (C)
45. Assertion (A): Internal factors of business environment are controllable factors.
Reason (R): The Company can alter or modify such factors to suit the environment.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect.
Answers: (A)
46. The concept of ‘Rolling Plan’ in India was introduced by the
(A) BJP Government
(B) Janta Government
(C) Congress Government
(D) All of the above
Answers: (B)
47. Which one of the following is an obstacle to globalization?
(A) Wide base
(B) Niche markets
(C) Obsolescence
(D) Competition
Answers: (C)
48. ‘VSAT’ technology is first followed for on-line trading by
(A) BSE
(B) OTCEI
(C) NSE
(D) ISE
Answers: (C)
49. Match the following:
List – I List – II
Years Act
(a) 1956 (i) Consumer Protection Act
(b) 1986 (ii) Indian Companies Act
(c) 1992 (iii) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(d) 2002 (iv) Securitization Act
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answers: (A)
50. The flagship project of Government of India launched for generating guaranteed employment in rural areas is known as
(A) PMRY
(B) MNREGA
(C) JRY
(D) NREP
Answers: (B)
51. The conflicts in project ranking in capital budgeting as per NPV and IRR may arise because of
(A) Size disparity
(B) Time disparity
(C) Life disparity
(D) All the above
Answers: (D)
52. The degree of financial leverage reflects the responsiveness of
(A) Operating income to changes in total revenue
(B) EPS to changes in EBIT
(C) EPS to changes in total revenue
(D) None of the above
Answers: (B)
53. The overall capitalization rate and the cost of debt remain constant for all degrees of financial leverage is advocated by
(A) Traditional Approach
(B) Net Income Approach
(C) Net Operating Income Approach
(D) M-M-Approach
Answers: (C)
54. Which of the following is not included in the assumptions on which Myron Gordon proposed a model on stock valuation?
(A) Retained earnings, the only source of financing
(B) Finite life of the firm
(C) Taxes do not exist
(D) Constant rate of return on firm’s investment
Answers: (B)
55. Match the following:
List – I List – II
(i) Factoring services (a) Cash Management
(ii) Economic Order Quantity (b) Receivable Management
(iii) Commercial paper (c) Inventory Management
(d) Working Capital Financing
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) (a) (c) (b)
(B) (c) (b) (a)
(C) (b) (c) (d)
(D) (b) (a) (c)
Answers: (C)
56. Assertion (A): International business focuses on global resources, opportunities to buy/sell worldwide.
Reason (R): The efforts of IMF, World Bank and WTO to liberalise their economies led to globalisation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (A)
57. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II:
List – I List – II
(i) Wider Market 1. Modes of Entry
(ii) Turn key Projects 2. Goal of International Business
(iii) Expanding theproductioncapacities 3. AdvantagesofInternationalBusiness
(iv) Geocentric approach 4. Stage of Globalisation
Codes:
i ii iii iv
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
Answers: (B)
58. BRICS includes
(A) Bhutan, Romania, Indonesia, Chile and South Korea
(B) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, Chile and Sudan
(C) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
(D) Britain, Russia, India, Czechoslovakia, Sri Lanka
Answers: (C)
59. Out of the following, one is not related with WTO:
(A) TRIPS
(B) Ministerial Conference
(C) TRIMS
(D) TRAI
Answers: (D)
60. Balance of Payment includes components
(A) Current Account, Capital Account, Unilateral Payments Accounts, Official Settlement Account
(B) Revenue Account, P & L Account, Capital Account, Official Account
(C) Trade Account, Activity Account, Revenue Account, Currency Account
(D) Forex Account, Trade Account, Funds Account
Answers: (A)
61. Assertion (A): International Monetary Fund was set up in 1944.
Reason (R): To promote international monetary cooperation through a permanent institution this provides machinery for consultation and collaboration on international monetary problems.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answers: (B)
62. The commercial banks do not perform one function out of the following:
(A) Mobilisation of savings
(B) Giving Loans and Advances
(C) Issuing Currency Notes
(D) Financing Priority Sectors
Answers: (C)
63. There are two lists of items, match the items of List – I with items of List – II:
List – I List – II
I. Reserve Bank of India 1. NPA
II. EXIM Bank 2. Facilitating Small Scale Industries
III. SIDBI 3. Credit Control
IV. Capital Adequacy 4. Export/Import Financing
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answers: (D)
64. One of the items is not related with e-banking:
(A) Demand Draft
(B) SPNS
(C) ECS
(D) ATM
Answers: (A)
65. Assertion (A): The Treasury Manager uses the derivatives in the Bond market as well as in Forex market.
Reason (R): It helps risk coverage.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answers: (B)
66. Factoring and forfeiting have not taken off in the Indian economy due to lack of expertise and experience. One is not included in the factoring services rendered.
(A) Purchase of book debts and receivables.
(B) Prepayment of debts partially or fully
(C) Giving advice
(D) Covering the credit risk of the suppliers
Answers: (C)
67. Which one is not the form of FDI?
(A) Purchase of existing assets in foreign currency
(B) New Investment in property, plant, equipment
(C) Making investment in the mutual funds
(D) Transfer of many types ofassets
Answers: (C)
68. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II:
List – I List – II
1. Measures towards globalization I. Globalisation
2. Off-shoring II. FEMA
3. FERA III. Liberalise the inflow of FDI
4. Mr. AruthurDunkel IV. Uruguay Round
Codes:
1 2 3 4
(A) III I II IV
(B) II I III IV
(C) IV II I III
(D) I II IV III
Answers: (A)
69. Which one of the following is not the advantage of MNCs to the host country?
(A) Increase in social activity
(B) Increase in economic activity
(C) Utilization of natural resources
(D) R & D efforts enhanced
Answers: (A)
70. India suffered from deficit balance both in trade balance and net invisibles, hence, took up a number of steps to manage this problem. Which one is not appropriate for this?
(A) Export control
(B) Current Account Convertibility
(C) Liberalized Export Policy
(D) Unified Exchange Rate
Answers: (A)
71. Mr. James, a citizen of U.S., arrived in India for the first time on 1st July, 2010 and left for Nepal on 15thDecember 2010. He arrived to India again on 1st January 2011 and stayed till the end of the financial year 2010-11. His residential status for the assessment year 2011-12 is
(A) Resident (ordinarily resident)
(B) Not ordinarily resident
(C) Non-resident
(D) None of the above
Answers: (B)
72. The value of free accommodation in Delhi provided by employer in the private sector is
(A) 10% of salary
(B) 15% of salary
(C) 20% of salary
(D) 25% of salary
Answers: (B)
73. Which of the following is not a capital asset under capital gains head of income?
(A) Stock in trade
(B) Goodwill of business
(C) Agricultural Land in Delhi
(D) Jewellery
Answers: (A)
74. Match the items of List – I with List – II:
List – I List – II
I. Tax Planning 1. Making suitable arrangement of TDS
II. Tax Avoidance 2. Understatement of Income
III. Tax Evasion 3. Availing deduction under Section 10A of IT Act.
IV. Tax Administration 4. Misinterpreting the provisions of the IT Act
Codes:
I II III IV
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 3 2
Answers: (C)
75. Under the Income Tax Act, 1961 unabsorbed depreciation can be carried forward for set-off purpose:
(A) For 4 years
(B) For 5 years
(C) For 8 years
(D) For unspecified period
Answers: (D)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examinations paper-3 in Commerce was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper-2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Commerce paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Commerce Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
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