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NTA UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
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1. Strategic studies is related with the study of
(A) The evolution of warfare.
(B) The use of military power for political objectives.
(C) The use of military power for military objectives.
(D) The military policies in the nuclear age.
Answer: (B)
2. Who among the following propounded “Mandala Theory” of inter-state relations?
(A) Shukra
(B) Vishwamitra
(C) V.P. Singh
(D) Kautilya
Answer: (D)
3. Who is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces?
(A) Defense Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief of the Army
(D) President of India
Answer: (D)
4. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following theorists on the basis of the code given as under:
Codes:
(A) Clausewitz, Jomini, Kautilya, Alfred T. Mahan
(B) Kautilya, Jomini, Clausewitz, Alfred T. Mahan
(C) Jomini, Kautilya, Alfred T. Mahan, Clausewitz
(D) Alfred T. Mahan, Clausewitz, Jomini, Kautilya
Answer: (B)
5. Who, among the following, propounded the concept of “Push to Utmost”?
(A) Jomini
(B) Clausewitz
(C) Alfred T. Mahan
(D) Douhet
Answer: (B)
6. The modern nation-state has come under tremendous challenge from the following:
(A) Religion
(B) Ethnicity
(C) Terrorism
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
7. Who among the following opined the concept of “Geographical pivot of History”?
(A) Karl Haushofer
(B) Halford Mackinder
(C) Alexander De Seversky
(D) Alfred T. Mahan
Answer: (B)
8. Which one of the following countries did not contribute to the development of NAM?
(A) Egypt
(B) Yugoslavia
(C) China
(D) India
Answer: (C)
9. Defence policy of a country aims at
(A) Maintaining International Peace
(B) Safeguarding Territorial Integrity
(C) Preserving Sovereignty
(D) Projecting National Image
Answer: (B)
10. Which one of the following is the oldest theory of the origin of State?
(A) Force Theory
(B) Evolutionary Theory
(C) Divine Origin Theory
(D) Patriarchal & Matriarchal Theory
Answer: (C)
11. Who opined that ‘for a saint it is right to see the same in every person – but for a ruler and soldier it is great fault and can be a source of disgrace’?
(A) Shukra
(B) Kautilya
(C) Kissinger
(D) Raymond Aron
Answer: (B)
12. In the 21st century strategic environment, pre-dominant elements of National Power does not include
(A) Military capability with information dominance
(B) Economic, industrial and technological strength
(C) National will
(D) Enemy character
Answer: (D)
13. Which one of the following Arab- Israel conflicts was seen as responsible for the defensive build-up of the Barlev line?
(A) Suez Conflict of 1956
(B) Arab-Israel Conflict of 1967
(C) Arab-Israel Conflict of 1973
(D) PLO-Israel Conflict
Answer: (C)
14. The person, for whom the term ‘one man boundary force’ has been used
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Gen. Erwin Rommel
(C) Gen. K. Sunderji
(D) Nelson Mandela
Answer: (A)
15. A theory based on principle of rational decision to prevent total destruction and also providing alternative to war is known as
(A) Dependency Theory
(B) Theory of Security Dilemma
(C) Deterrence Theory
(D) Balance of Power Theory
Answer: (C)
16. “Internal conflicts have become more prominent in the recent years. Which one of the following statement does not support this conclusion”?
(A) Since the end of Cold War 90 percent conflicts were of internal conflicts.
(B) Only 5 conflicts were inter-state conflict from 1989 to 1996.
(C) In the decade 1989 to 2000 seven wars were state-secured and nine civil wars involved intervention by foreign states.
(D) Causalities in internal wars have been less than the interstate wars in the last 20 years.
Answer: (D)
17. Identity by scholar who founded the German school of geopolitics
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Halford Mackinder
(C) Carl Haushofer
(D) Raymond Aron
Answer: (C)
18. Who wrote the book, “Necessity of Choice”?
(A) K. Subrahmanyam
(B) Clausewitz
(C) Dr. Henry Kissinger
(D) D.K. Palit
Answer: (C)
19. The concept of Confidence Building Measures (CBMs) was designed to avert one of the following:
(A) General War
(B) Surprised Nuclear Attack
(C) Accidental Nuclear War
(D) Planned Nuclear Strike
Answer: (B)
20. An informal attempt by private individuals or groups to try and resolve an ongoing conflict or Civil War is known as:
(A) Track two diplomacy
(B) CBMs
(C) Track four diplomacy
(D) Economic Institution
Answer: (A)
21. Match the following events (Table – I) with their respective core objectives (Table – II) and choose the correct code:
Table – I Table – II
(a) Helsinki Process (i) Confidence Building measures
(b) Stockholm conference (ii) Confidence and security building measures
(c) START – I (iii) Strategic Arms Limitation
(d) INF Treaty (iv) Reduction of Nuclear Forces
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer: (A)
22. Which of the following is not the fundamental objectives of CBMs as propounded by Helsinki Final Act of 1975:
(A) To eliminate the cause of tension.
(B) To promote confidence between parties to contribute to stability.
(C) To reduce the danger of conflict.
(D) To encourage building of military alliances.
Answer: (D)
23. ‘One for all, for one’ is a concept intertwined with one of the following:
(A) Collective Defence
(B) Balance of Power
(C) Collective Security
(D) Comprehensive Security
Answer: (C)
24. Which one of the following was not suggested by the Diplomatic Conference on the Reaffirmation and Development of the International Humanitarian Law (IHL) in 1977?
(A) Teaching of IHL in a manner suited to international circumstances.
(B) Undertaking training of suitable persons for the teaching of IHL and other related laws.
(C) Intensifying teaching of IHL in universities.
(D) Issuing warning for introducing courses on the principles of IHL in Secondary and similar schools.
Answer: (D)
25. Fear of using nuclear weapons against an adversary was largely attributed to one of the following concepts:
(A) Total Annihilation
(B) Mutually Assured Destruction
(C) Death blow to the enemy
(D) End of History
Answer: (B)
26. Who was first to conceptualise the limited war?
(A) H. Kissinger
(B) B. Broodie
(C) B.H. Liddell Hart
(D) Gen. V.R. Raghavan
Answer: (C)
27. A State having a preponderance of power, enforces rules and norms in the international system is identified as
(A) Great Power
(B) Super Power
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Hegemon
Answer: (D)
28. Which one of the following is not a part of the defence policy of a nation state?
(A) Provisions and procurement of military resources
(B) Deployment of forces
(C) Use of forces
(D) Declaration of Emergency
Answer: (D)
29. Geostrategy deals with one of the following:
(A) Nuclear Weapons
(B) Military Hardware
(C) Proxy War
(D) Terrain
Answer: (D)
30. The so-called ‘Red Corridor’ terrorism is called
(A) Naxal terrorism
(B) International terrorism
(C) Cross-border terrorism
(D) Fundamentalism
Answer: (A)
31. Which one of the following is a land locked country?
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Mongolia
(D) Yemen
Answer: (C)
32. Which one of the following States is not a member of the UN Security Council?
(A) U.S.A
(B) Russia
(C) Brazil
(D) China
Answer: (C)
33. Who among the following observers spoke during World War II what the terrain was tacticians’ paradise but quartermaster’s hell”
(A) Raymond Aron
(B) G. Crouther
(C) Revenstein
(D) Henry Kissinger
Answer: (C)
34. Chakma refugees are identified as one of the following:
(A) Ethnic Vietnamese settled in Cambodia
(B) Muslim Burmese who fled to Bangladesh following repression by the Burmese military junta
(C) Sinhalese who fled the Jaffna Peninsula in the wake of Civil War
(D) Buddhist inhabitants of Chittagong Hill tracts in Bangladesh who fled to India
Answer: (D)
35. Military geography is primarily connected with
(A) Resource Mobilization
(B) Armed Forces and Space
(C) War Finance
(D) Research and Development
Answer: (B)
36. India’s maritime security is directly associated with
(A) National Security Interests
(B) Maritime Security Forces
(C) Protection of maritime interest and force projection in the Indian Ocean
(D) Continental Diplomacy
Answer: (C)
37. “Operation Jeronimo” is the code name given to one of the following:
(A) Killing of Osama Bin Laden in Abbottabad (Pakistan)
(B) The Indo-US naval exercise in the Bay of Bengal
(C) First nuclear test by the United States
(D) First nuclear test by the Soviet Union
Answer: (A)
38. Which one of the following is not recognized as existential threats to mankind?
(A) WMD
(B) NMD
(C) Climate change
(D) International Terrorism
Answer: (B)
39. Political or Civil Rights of citizens that prevent governmental authority from interfering with private individuals or civil society is classified as:
(A) Second Generation Human Rights
(B) Rights based on Democratic values
(C) Natural Rights
(D) First generation Human Rights
Answer: (D)
40. Possession of nuclear capability by the select states has given way to one of the following
(A) Conventional War
(B) Guerrilla War
(C) Low Intensity Conflict
(D) All out war
Answer: (C)
41. Arrange the following nuclear weapon states according to the chronological order of their first nuclear tests with the help of the code given below:
(A) US, PRC, USSR, UK, France, India, Pakistan
(B) USSR, PRC, US, UK, India, Pakistan, France
(C) US, USSR, UK, France, PRC, India, Pakistan
(D) UK, US, USSR, PRC, Pakistan, France, India
Answer: (C)
42. Gadchiroli District is a Naxalite – prone area, which lies in one of the following States:
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Odissa
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (B)
43. Low Intensity operations mean
(A) Limited War
(B) Contemporary conventional warfare
(C) Proxy War and all violence short of Civil War
(D) Guerrilla War
Answer: (C)
44. Which one of the following groups of countries have transferred all the strategic and tactical nuclear warheads to Russia following the collapse of Soviet Union:
(A) Kazakhstan, Estonia, Ukraine
(B) Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Latvia
(C) Latvia, Ukraine, Belarus
(D) Belarus, Kazakhstan, Ukraine
Answer: (D)
45. When a group of people with common ethno nationalist tendencies demand separation of a territory from the parent state is identified as:
(A) Insurgency
(B) Nationalism
(C) Irredentism
(D) Terrorist Act
Answer: (C)
46. A country is said to have achieved nuclear a ‘TRIAD’ if one of the following requirements are fulfilled:
(A) An Army having nuclear capable force
(B) An Air force having nuclear capable aircraft
(C) A country’s all three wings of armed forced possess nuclear capability
(D) A Navy having Aircraft carrier
Answer: (C)
47. One of the fundament principles of defence economics is that
(A) All expenditure on defence forces are wasteful.
(B) Till universal and perpetual peace is established, there is a need to incur defence expenditure.
(C) Defence expenditure must be proportional to security requirements.
(D) Defence expenditure is an indispensable necessity.
Answer: (D)
48. Economic warfare implies
(A) Weakening the enemy by economic means
(B) Attack on enemy’s resources
(C) Complete blockade
(D) Checking supply lines
Answer: (A)
49. SAPTA is a
(A) Peace plan for Cambodia
(B) Partition plan for the Yugoslav Republics
(C) Preferential trade agreement among SAARC countries
(D) Human Rights Organization
Answer: (C)
50. The relevance of Science & Technology in the field of National Security does not get impetus if one of the following conditions are not fulfilled:
(A) Adequate economic and industrial power
(B) Scientific and technological research and development for traditional security capability.
(C) Scientific and technological research and development for non-traditional security capability
(D) National will
Answer: (D)
51. The basic rules of the International Humanitarian law have been laid down in
(A) Geneva conventions and their Protocols
(B) Preamble of the United Nations
(C) Preamble of the League of Nations
(D) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Answer: (A)
52. In 21st century, Human Security requires
(A) Dignity
(B) Survival
(C) Security through development
(D) Security through arms
Answer: (D)
53. The IMF is often criticized for the conditions it attaches to its loans, as a“austerity package”. Which one of the following conditions is not a part of it :
(A) Government to privatise their holdings
(B) Increase military spending
(C) Cut government spending
(D) Increase interest rates
Answer: (B)
54. Heavy water means
(A) Water treated with chlorine.
(B) Water which does not form lather easily with soap.
(C) Water used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
(D) Distilled water
Answer: (C)
55. The expansion of RADAR is
(A) Radio Detection and Range
(B) Radio Direction and Reforms
(C) Radio Discrimination and Reflection
(D) Radio Direct and Reflection
Answer: (A)
56. Which one of the following is not included in the Science and
Technology Organizations of India:
(A) Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
(B) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(C) Council of Scientific and industrial Research (CSIR)
(D) The Bharat Earth Movers Ltd
Answer: (D)
57. The term weapon system implies
(A) Single weapon only
(B) A weapon with plateform
(C) A weapon, plateform and carrier
(D) A weapon, plateform and ammunition
Answer: (C)
58. Who among the following coined the term ‘cyberspace’?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) S. Petroda
(C) William Gibson
(D) J. Narlikar
Answer: (C)
59. Mobilization of Resources mainly implicates a country’s security syndrome
(A) Information Technology
(B) Budgeting
(C) Weapon Technology
(D) Defence and Development
Answer: (D)
60. Match the following Atomic Power Stations (Table – I) with their respective States (Table – II) and choose the correct code:
Table – I Table – II
Atomic Power Stations State
(a) Kakrapar (i) Rajasthan
(b) Narora (ii) Gujarat
(c) Kalpakkam (iii) Tamil Nadu
(d) Tarapur (iv) Maharashtra
(e) Kota (v) Uttar Pradesh
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(B) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Answer: (C)
61. Mark the correct match with the help of code given below:
Year Treaty
(a) 1987 (i) Geneva Protocol
(b) 1993 (ii) Chemical weapons convention
(c) 1925 (iii) Missile technology control regime
(d) 1972 (iv) Biological and toxic weapons convention
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (D)
62. Choose the appropriate code of the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The Second Nuclear Security Summit held in South Korea in 2012 brought into lime-light the issues of nuclear terrorism in a substantial manner.
Reason (R): The nuclear and missile development, in North Korea and Iran would complicate further the nuclear safety and security challenges.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
63. Arrange the following nuclear strategies in Chronological order in which they appeared and choose the correct code:
I. Preventive nuclear strategy
II. Pre-emptive nuclear strategy
III. Strategy of Massive Retaliation
IV. Strategy of Flexible Response
Codes:
(A) II, I, III, IV
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) III, IV, II, I
(D) IV, III, II, I
Answer: (B)
64. Match the following countries in Table – I with their weaponry given in Table – II.
Table – I Table – II
(a) U.S. (i) Patriot
(b) Russia (ii) Chakra
(c) China (iii) Backfire
(d) India (iv) M-11
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (B)
65. Choose the appropriate code of the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The withdrawal of the U.S. forces from Afghanistan in 2014 is going to create a serious strategic vacuum, which would be detrimental to the Global War on terror.
Reason (R): Afghan Taliban and Pakistan are likely gainers.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
Answer: (A)
66. Match the following border lines (Table – I) with their respective countries (Table – II) and choose the correct code:
Table – I Table – II
Border Lines Countries
(a) Macmohan Line (i) India-China
(b) 38th Parallel (ii) North Korea &South Korea
(c) Hidenburg line (iii) Poland &Germany
(d) Maginot Line (iv) France &Germany
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (C)
67. Choose the appropriate code of the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The President of India is as per Constitution Supreme Commander of the armed forces.
Reason (R): He has to exercise all his functions in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is not.
(D) Neither (A) nor (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
68. Choose the appropriate code of the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): During the Kargil war of 1999, Pakistan was forced to withdraw its forced under the heavy pressure from the United States.
Reason (R): There was a danger of nuclear exchange and also India’s conventional military success in the operational areas of the Kargil War.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(B) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
Answer: (C)
69. Choose the appropriate code of Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): LOC is the product of peace keeping process between India and Pakistan.
Reason (R): Indian efforts to develop economy of the State of Jammu and Kashmir are essential.
Codes:
(A) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(B) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (A) is not the explanation of (R).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (A) is the proper explanation of (R).
Answer: (C)
70. Choose the appropriate code of the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Enemy images can create misperception regarding the likelihood of war.
Reason (R): Leaders exaggerate the likelihood of conflict as they see the other as inherently aggressive.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the proper explanation of the (A).
(D) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the proper explanation of the (A).
Answer: (D)
71. Identify the correct code for the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Deterrence theory belief has accelerated the nuclear arms race.
Reason (R): Nuclear arms race may ultimately be culminated into the evolution of ‘MAD’.
Codes:
(A) (A) is wrong, (R) is correct.
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct and (A) is the explanation of (R).
(C) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.
(D) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not related to (A).
Answer: (B)
Read the passage below and answer the following questions that are based on your understanding of the passage:
The maritime neighbours of India need to be engaged in pollution response measures. All coastlines are vulnerable to oil spills. Greater military to military cooperation and planning for contingencies would make our maritime neighbours more responsive. Presently capacity of the Indian Coast Guard is to handle 10,000 tons of oil spills. What is a grey area is once oil spill hits the shore, then the labour intensive task of clean up is that of an organization on land. There is a limit to collect volunteers for such sustained work. Joint strategies need to be worked out for dealing with oil spill spreading to a neighbouring country’s coastal region.
South Asian waters are also a convenient dumping ground of derelict obsolete and obsolescent bottoms. Taking advantage of lax insurance and monitoring mechanisms, it becomes easy for ships carrying flags to beach their derelict and hulls with polluting or hazardous cargo. Coast guards and navies of the region need to gear up to prevent the Indian Ocean being treated as a dumping ground. As single hulled shipped get phased out in developed countries, they are most likely to head to Indian waters. Also with growth of the world economy shipping is growing. In other words more oil spill disasters are in the making impacting both the marine and coastal zone.
72. Oil spills in the sea near the coastal line call for immediate actions as given above. Which one of the following is not required?
(A) Clean up the oil spill area.
(B) Push the oil spill into deep sea.
(C) Conduct the joint work with neighbouring coastal country to control the oil spill.
(D) Plan the strategy to control oil spill.
Answer: (B)
73. To coastal lines are vulnerable to oil spills. Which one of the following is necessary to make neighbouring coastal countries more responsive?
(A) By making neighbouring coastal countries aware of the imminent problems of marine pollution.
(B) By conducting joint military exercises.
(C) By visiting into each other’s coastal jurisdiction very frequently.
(D) By providing high-tech ships building industries.
Answer: (A)
74. Why is the dumping of scrap and unwanted hazardous materials in the South Asian sea water convenient?
Which one of the following reasons is not true?
(A) Because of lack of strict insurance
(B) Because of South Asian poverty
(C) Lack of monitoring mechanism
(D) Lack of environmental awareness
Answer: (B)
75. Oil spill disasters in the Indian Ocean may be more in the future because of
(A) More shipping in the other oceans than the Indian Ocean.
(B) Growth of the world economy.
(C) Increase in the activities of coast guards and navies.
(D) Lack of dock facilities.
Answer: (B)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Defence and Strategic Studies was of descriptive type till December 2011.
paper-3 becomes objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper-3 was stopped and becomes part of paper-2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
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NTA UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
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