NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Question Paper 2 2012 December. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.
You must have NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Solved Question Papers along with the latest Environmental Sciences Syllabus to enhance your semester exam preparation.
Here we have provided you with the complete guide on NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December.
NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Environmental Sciences exam.
Practicing these NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences previous year question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December.
1. Assertion (A): Biosphere constitutes an excellent life-support system which is sustainable and can fulfil all human needs.
Reason (R): The size and productivity of the Biosphere is limited by availability of water, nutrients and environmental conditions.
Identify the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
2. Geostrophic wind occurs when pressure gradient force balances
(A) Coriolis force
(B) Frictional force
(C) Centripetal force
(D) Coriolis and frictional force together
Answer: (A)
3. Scales of Meteorology are in the following order starting from the least
(A) Macro –, Micro –, Meso –
(B) Macro–, Meso–, Micro–
(C) Meso–, Macro–, Micro–
(D) Micro–, Meso–, Macro –
Answer: (D)
4. When the full potential of physical, chemical and biological factors, a species can use if there is no competition, it is called
(A) Fundamental niche
(B) Ecological niche
(C) Realized niche
(D) Competitive exclusion
Answer: (A)
5. The uppermost zone of atmosphere of earth, where shortwave ultraviolet radiations are absorbed, is
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Answer: (D)
6. which of the following oxides of nitrogen is the major air pollutant released from automobile exhausts?
(A) NO
(B) N2O
(C) NO2
(D) N2O3
Answer: (A)
7. Match List – I with List – II which contains pollutant gases and their threshold (safe limit) values as per WHO standards:
List – I List – II
(Pollutant gas) (Thresholds)
a. CO i. 2 ppm
b. SO2 ii. 50 ppm
c. NO iii. 0.08 ppm
d. PAN iv. 25 ppm
Identity the correct code:
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii iv ii i
Answer: (C)
8. The band labelled as UV-C which is lethal to micro-organisms is
(A) 0.29 – 0.32 m
(B) 0.2 – 0.29 m
(C) 0.17 – 0.2 m
(D) 0.07 – 0.21 m
Answer: (B)
9. Which of the following species in the atmosphere is called atmospheric detergent?
(A) Chlorine radical
(B) Hydroxyl radical
(C) Methyl radical
(D) Ozone radical
Answer: (B)
10. The POH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 13
Answer: (C)
11. Identify the pair (element-health effect) which is correctly matched:
(A) Lead – Methaemoglobinemia
(B) Arsenic – Kidney damage
(C) Mercury – Nervous disorder
(D) PAN – Hypoxemia
Answer: (D)
12. Which of the following organisms can act as primary consumer, secondary consumer, tertiary consumer or scavenger in different types of food chains?
(A) Raven
(B) Tiger
(C) Snake
(D) Phytoplanktones
Answer: (A)
13. The tendency of biological systems to resist change and to remain in a state of equilibrium is called
(A) Homeostatis
(B) Feedback mechanism
(C) Ecological efficiency
(D) Carrying capacity
Answer: (A)
14. If different categories of threatened species are written in a sequence, what is the correct order?
(A) Extinct-> Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered
(B) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Endangered -> Extinct
(C) Vulnerable -> Rare -> Extinct -> Endangered
(D) Rare -> Vulnerable -> Endangered -> Extinct
Answer: (B)
15. Which of the following is not a type of ex situ conservation method?
(A) Botanical garden
(B) Zoological park
(C) Wildlife sanctuaries
(D) Gene banks
Answer: (C)
16. As a consequence of succession the P/B ratio (Gross production /
Standing crop biomass) is changed. It is
(A) High during developmental stages and low at mature stage.
(B) Low during developmental stages and high at mature stage.
(C) > 1 or < 1 at developmental stages and approximately 1 at mature stage.
(D) Remaining unchanged at all stages.
Answer: (A)
17. Preparation of hazard-zoning map in case of landslide prone regions involves comprehensive investigation of
(A) Details of structural and lithological settings.
(B) Geomorphic features relating to instability of slopes.
(C) Seismicity pattern of the region.
(D) all of the above.
Answer: (D)
18. If ap = specified value of peak acceleration, N = mean rate of occurrence of earthquake per year, tep = time interval of consideration (exposure period) and Fap = probability that an observed acceleration is less than or equal to ap, then the cumulative probability distribution of peak acceleration for epoch – dependent seismic hazard map is given by which formula ?
(A) Fmaxtep = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)}
(B) Fmax = exp {–Nt(1 – Fap)} . tep
(C) Fmaxtep= exp {–t(1 – Fap)N}
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
19. Assertion (A): In oceans, Na has the longest residence time, within an order of magnitude of the age of the oceans.
Reason (R): The long residence time of Na reflects a lack of reactivity of sodium in the marine environment by not being readily incorporated in the common sedimentary minerals, nor being removed by biological reactions.
Identify the correct code:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
20. According to Goldieh the decreasing order of stability of following minerals of igneous rocks towards weathering is
(A) Muscovite > Quartz > Potash feldspar >Biotite
(B) Biotite> Potash feldspar >Muscovite > Quartz
(C) Quartz > Muscovite > Potash feldspar >Biotite
(D) Potash feldspar > Quartz >Muscovite >Biotite
Answer: (C)
21. In universal polar stereographic coordinate system the eastings and northings are computed using which projection method?
(A) Polar aspect stereographic projection
(B) Non-polar aspect stereo graphic projection
(C) Polar aspect Mercator projection
(D) Non-polar aspect Mercator projection
Answer: (A)
22. Pitchblende is an ore of
(A) Nickel
(B) Chromium
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Uranium
Answer: (D)
23. Copper (Cu) is classified according to its geochemical affinity as
(A) Siderophile element
(B) Chalcophile element
(C) Lithophile element
(D) Atmophile element
Answer: (B)
24. If ‘a’ is the fractional wind speed decrease at the wind turbine, the maximum extraction of power from the wind occurs when ‘a’ is equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1
(D) 3/5
Answer: (B)
25. in the following fusion energy reaction
D + T = 0n1 + X identify X
(A) Li
(B) H2
(C) He3
(D) He4
Answer: (D)
26. Assertion (A): Natural gas is a very attractive eco friendly fuel.
Reason (R): It produces few pollutants and less carbon dioxide per unit energy than any other fossil fuel on combustion.
Identify the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
27. Assertion (A): Solar photovoltaic cells are expensive.
Reason (R): Solar photovoltaic cells are fabricated from crystalline silicon and operate only at 10-12% efficiency.
Identify the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
28. Human activities add 7-9 gigatons of CO2 per annum into the atmosphere. Major contributor to this CO2 is
(A) Burning of fossil fuels
(B) Clearing of forests for agriculture
(C) Fermentation industries
(D) Cement industries
Answer: (A)
29. According to WHO, maximum permissible level of chlorides in drinking water is
(A) 100 mg/L
(B) 200 mg/L
(C) 600 mg/L
(D) 800 mg/L
Answer: (C)
30. Wilting coefficient of a loam represents
(A) The minimum water content of the soil at which plants can no longer obtain water
(B) Water holding capacity
(C) Capillary water
(D) Field capacity
Answer: (A)
31. Which one of the following techniques can be used for determining the level of cadmium in soil?
(A) UV – Visible spectrophotometer
(B) Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer
(C) XRD
(D) IR spectrometer
Answer: (B)
32. For noise control in automobiles, the exhaust muffler attenuates sound by
(A) Absorption
(B) Destructive interference
(C) Reducing velocity of hot gases
(D) Absorption and destructive interference
Answer: (C)
33.
Answer: (C)
34. Soil fulvic acids are strong chelators of
(A) Iron (II)
(B) Iron (III)
(C) Both Iron (II) and Iron (III)
(D) Fe(OH)3
Answer: (A)
35. Natural source of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) is
(A) Root exudates
(B) Anaerobic bacteria
(C) Aerobic bacteria
(D) Grass fires
Answer: (D)
36. Match the ‘phase’ with the ‘activity’ in Environmental Audit. Identify the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List – I List – II
(Phase) (Activity)
a. Pre-Audit i. Human input output analysis in relation to economy
b. On-site Audit ii. Reviewingaudit-checklists
c. Post-Audit iii. Records/Documents Review
Codes:
a b c
(A) ii iii i
(B) i iii ii
(C) i ii iii
(D) iii ii i
Answer: (A)
37. Match the Impact Assessment Methodologies (List – II) with the corresponding environments (List – I).
Identify the correct answer from thecodes given below the lists.
List – I List – II
a. Air i. Ecosystem models
b. Biological ii. Gaussian models
c. Water iii. Mass balance approach
d. Land iv. G.I.S.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (A)
38. Public hearing is conducted
(A) Prior to site selection
(B) Prior to approval of Terms of Reference
(C) After preparation of EIA
(D) After environmental clearance
Answer: (C)
39. IAIA stands for
(A) International Association of Impact Assessment
(B) Indian Association of Impact Assessment
(C) International Assembly of Impact Assessment
(D) Indian Assembly of Impact Assessment
Answer: (A)
40. Municipal Solid Wastes (MSWs) have the heating value typically in the range
(A) 9,300 to 12,800 kJ/kg
(B) 1000 to 2500 kJ/kg
(C) 1780 to 2830 kJ/kg
(D) 530 to 780 kJ/kg
Answer: (A)
41. The Motor Vehicles Act 1938 was amended in which year?
(A) 1972
(B) 1980
(C) 1988
(D) 1986
Answer: (C)
42. The following statistical test is used to ascertain whether there is significant difference between the variances of two sets of observations:
(A) t-test
(B) F-test
(C) Chi square test
(D) Regression
Answer: (B)
43.
Answer: (C)
44. The geometric mean of the following data:
4, 10, 25, 10 is
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 12.25
(D) 100/49
Answer: (A)
45.
Answer: (A)
46. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume rise varies with Buoyancy Flux Parameter F as
(A) F
(B) F1/2
(C) F1/3
(D) F1/4
Answer: (C)
47. United Nations Conference on Environment, also termed as Earth Summit, was held in 1992 in which city?
(A) Rio de Janeiro
(B) Kyoto
(C) Stockholm
(D) Copenhagen
Answer: (A)
48. In which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats are situated?
(A) Punjab
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Answer: (D)
49. Variety of different species, genetic variability among individuals within each species and variety of ecosystems constitute the so called
(A) Species diversity
(B) Genetic diversity
(C) Biological diversity
(D) Ecological diversity
Answer: (C)
50. Baba Amte was the leader of
(A) Appiko Movement
(B) Chipko Movement
(C) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(D) Tehri Dam Movement
Answer: (C)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Previous Year Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2020 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 July |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2004 December |
We have covered the NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December.
If you have any questions about NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Solved Question Papers, please let us know in the comment section.