NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 September: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Forensic Science, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
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NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Forensic Science exam.
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1. A dead body for autopsy is to be preserved in a cold chamber whose preferred temperature is
(A) – 4 °C
(B) 0 °C
(C) 4 °C
(D) 10 °C
Answer:Â (C)
2. Which of the following is not a feature of immediate change after death?
(A) Cessation of brain function
(B) Cessation of heart function
(C) Cooling of the body
(D) Stoppage of respiration
Answer:Â (C)
3. Match the following:
List – I                       List – II
(a) Parathion               i. O, O-dimethyl-Sdithiophosphate
(b) Dimethoate           ii. O, O-Dimethyl dithiophosphate of diethyl mercaptosuccinate
(c) Phosphamidon      iii. O, O-diethyl-O-pnitrophenylthiophosphate
(d) Malathion             iv. O, (2-chloro-2- diethyl carbamoyl)- 1-methyl-vinyl-O, O-di-methmylphosphate
Codes:
(a) Â Â Â Â Â Â (b) Â Â Â Â Â Â (c)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â (d)
(A)      iii        i          iv        ii
(B)      i          ii         iii        iv
(C)      iii        ii         i          iv
(D)      ii         iii        i          ii
Answer:Â (A)
4. Match the following:
List – I                       List – II
(a) Delusion                i. Desire to steal articles of small value
(b) Hallucination        ii. False belief which is not a fact
(c) Illusion                  iii. False perception without a stimulus
(d) Kleptomania         iv. False interpretation of a stimulus
Codes:
(a) Â Â Â Â Â Â (b) Â Â Â Â Â Â (c)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â (d)
(A)      iii        iv        i          ii
(B)      ii         iii        iv        i
(C)      i          ii         iii        iv
(D)      iv        i          ii         iii
Answer:Â (B)
5. The test to identify vaginal epithelialcells in a case of sexual assault is
(A) Barberio’s test
(B) Florence’s test
(C) Lugol’s iodine test
(D) Precipitin test
Answer:Â (C)
6. Rule of Hasse helps in the determination of
(A) Age of Fetus
(B) Congenital anomalies of fetus
(C) Sex of fetus
(D) Stature of fetus
Answer:Â (A)
7. Which of the following conditions does not resemble rigor mortis?
(A) Cold stiffening
(B) Gas stiffening
(C) Pugilistic attitude
(D) Tetanus
Answer:Â (D)
8. The total number of temporary molars in a child aged 7 years
(A) Zero
(B) Four
(C) eight
(D) twelve
Answer:Â (C)
9. Fine, white lathery froth that is copious and tenacious around mouth and nostrils is suggestive of death due to
(A) Drowning
(B) Epilepsy
(C) Morphine poisoning
(D) Snake bite
Answer:Â (A)
10. Which is the best bone for determination of sex from skeletal remains?
(A) Skull
(B) Pelvis
(C) Scaphoid
(D) Pisiform
Answer:Â (B)
11. Intersex means
(A) Intermingling of sexual traits in a person
(B) Determination of fetal sex
(C) Female homosexuality
(D) Sodomy
Answer:Â (A)
12. The diameter of LG shot is
(A) 9.14 mm
(B) 8.43 mm
(C) 6.83 mm
(D) 5.16 mm
Answer:Â (A)
13. Derringers are single shot pistols, which possess
(A) Single barrel
(B) Multiple barrels
(C) Choke in the barrel
(D) Magazine
Answer:Â (B)
14.
Answer:Â (B)
15. In the firing mechanism of firearm trombone action is also called as
(a) Pump action
(b) Lever action
(c) Bolt action
(d) Slide action
Codes:
(A) (a) and (b) are correct
(B) (a) and (c) are correct
(C) (b) and (d) are correct
(D) (a) and (d) are correct
Answer:Â (D)
16. The probable time of last fire from a firearm can be determined by
(A) Dispersion of pellets
(B) Fouling
(C) Trajectory of projectile
(D) Muzzle velocity of projectile
Answer:Â (B)
17. Assertion (A): In Absorption-Inhibition method, specificabsorption is allowed to proceed by placing antigenic material in contact with its homologous antibody.
Reason (R): This absorption renders the serum less potent, and the inhibition of its activity is measured.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
Answer:Â (C)
18. The major metabolite of benzodiazepines is
(A) Benzoylecgonine
(B) Oxymorphone
(C) THC-acid
(D) Desmethyldiazepam
Answer:Â (D)
19. The presence of BHC is established by separation of its constituents by
(A) SDS-PAGE
(B) Northern blotting
(C) Chromatography
(D) Southern blotting
Answer:Â (C)
20. Ester test is done for the identification of which of the following poisons?
(A) Dhatura
(B) Opium
(C) Calatropis
(D) Abrus
Answer:Â (C)
21. Which of the following reagents is used to identify the vaginal secretion on the basis of detecting glycogenated epithelial cells?
(A) Benzidene reagent
(B) Periodic acid-schiff reagent
(C) Nessler’s reagent
(D) Iodoplatinate reagent
Answer:Â (B)
22. The presence of blood in the semen causing pink or reddish colour is known as
(A) Azoospermia
(B) Histospermia
(C) Oligospermia
(D) Hematospermia
Answer:Â (D)
23. Double helix structure of DNA was reported by
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Saikai and Mullis
(C) Oswald Avery
(D) Alec Jeffreys
Answer:Â (A)
24. Individuals who produce A, B and H blood group specific substances in body fluids are called as
(A) Secretors
(B) Non-secretors
(C) Lewis positive
(D) Lewis negative
Answer:Â (A)
25. In STR loci, the tandem repeat unit consists of
(A) 2-7 bp
(B) 242 bp
(C) 1100 bp
(D) 35 bp
Answer:Â (A)
26. The major advantage of the SEM includes the following except
(A) Its great depth of field
(B) Its high resolution
(C) Its high magnification
(D) Its ability to polarize light
Answer:Â (A)
27. IR spectra fail to distinguish
(A) Tautomer
(B) Enantiomers
(C) Conformers
(D) Stereoisomers
Answer:Â (B)
 28.
Answer:Â (B)
29. Match the following:
List – I                                   List – II
(a) Ultraviolet light                i. 2.5 – 25 μ
(b) Visible light                      ii. 2000 – 4000 °A
(c) X-ray                                 iii. 4000 – 8000 °A
(d) Near IR region                 iv. 0.1 – 100 °A
Codes:
(a) Â Â Â Â Â Â (b) Â Â Â Â Â Â (c)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â (d)
(A)      ii         i          iv        iii
(B)      iv        iii        ii         i
(C)      ii         iii        iv        i
(D)      iii        i          ii         iv
Answer:Â (C)
30. First G.E.Q.D. in India was started at
(A) Kolkata
(B) Shimla
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Delhi
Answer:Â (B)
31. Juvenile courts are meant for trial of
(A) Mentally ill persons
(B) Foreign citizens
(C) Criminal lawyers
(D) Children below 18 years
Answer:Â (D)
32. Which of the following courts is not a court of trial?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) First Class Judicial Magistrate
(C) Additional District and Session Judge
(D) Hight Court
Answer:Â (D)
33. Match the following:
List – I                       List – II
(a) DNA Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â i. Osborn
(b) Documents           ii. Hatcher
(c) Ballistics               iii. Landsteiner
(d) Blood                   iv. Jefferys
Codes:
(a) Â Â Â Â Â Â (b) Â Â Â Â Â Â (c)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â (d)
(A)      iv        i          ii         iii
(B)      i          ii         iii        iv
(C)      iv        iii        i          ii
(D)      iv        ii         i          iii
Answer:Â (A)
34. After collecting the blood stained soil from the scene, it should be sent for examination:
(A) As such without drying
(B) After drying in oven
(C) After drying under fan
(D) After drying under shade
Answer:Â (D)
35. Prostate-specific antigen is also called as
(A) Proteinase K
(B) Amylase
(C) P30
(D) Ptylase
Answer:Â (C)
36. Seminal acid-phosphatase is produced in the
(A) Adrenal gland
(B) Prostate gland
(C) Thyroid gland
(D) Pituitary gland
Answer:Â (B)
37. Microscopic air packets or vacuoles within the cortex of hair is called as
(A) Ovoid bodies
(B) Protein fibrils
(C) Cortical fussi
(D) Vacuum pockets
Answer:Â (C)
38. Creatinine in urine reacts with picric acid to form
(A) Di-sodium picrate
(B) Ammonium picrate
(C) Albumin picrate
(D) Creatinine picrate
Answer:Â (D)
39. Graying hair is as a result of loss of
(A) tyrosinase activity
(B) Proteinase activity
(C) Pectinase activity
(D) glucomylase activity
Answer:Â (A)
40. Type lines can be defined as the two innermost ridges which start parallel, diverge and surround or tend to surround ______.
(A) Pattern area
(B) Inner terminus
(C) Outer terminus
(D) Core
Answer:Â (A)
41. All the ten fingers having loop pattern will have classification as _________.
(A) 0/0
(B) 1/1
(C) 32/32
(D) 64/64
Answer:Â (B)
42. _________ technique is used to decipher latent finger-prints on wet non-porous surfaces.
(A) Small Particle Reagent (SPR)
(B) Ninhydrin
(C) Crystal violet
(D) Amido Black
Answer:Â (A)
43. Which of the following are examples of diacritic marks in handwriting?
(A) Dots of i and j
(B) loops of g and j
(C) Curves of i and j
(D) Loops of p and y
Answer:Â (A)
44. Which of the following techniques is considered effective to develop latent fingerprints on non-porous surfaces?
(A) Super glue
(B) Ninhydrin
(C) Diazafluorenone (DFO)
(D) Crystal violet
Answer:Â (A)
45. A bright halo observed near the border of a glass particle immersed in a liquid of a different refractive index is known as
(A) Refractive point
(B) Birefringence
(C) A straight line
(D) Becke line
Answer:Â (D)
46. Compressive strength analysis is done in case of
(A) Paint smear
(B) Hair
(C) Footprint
(D) Cement block
Answer:Â (D)
47. The following compound is not present in Borosilicate glass:
(A) Silica (SiO2)
(B) K2O
(C) Al2O3
(D) CaO
Answer:Â (D)
48. 4R rule of glass fracture relates to
(A) Concentric fracture
(B) Radial fracture
(C) Rib mark
(D) Hackle mark
Answer:Â (B)
49. Match the following ingredients of paint:
List – I                       List – II
(a) Pigment                 i. Zirconium napthemate
(b) Oil                         ii. Soya alkyd resin
(c) Drier                      iii. Titanium oxide
(d) Binder                  iv. Linseed oil
Codes:
(a) Â Â Â Â Â Â (b) Â Â Â Â Â Â (c)Â Â Â Â Â Â Â (d)
(A)      iii        i          iv        ii
(B)      i          iii        iv        ii
(C)      ii         iv        i          iii
(D)      iii        iv        i          ii
Answer:Â (D)
50. Radioactivity of a substance can be measured by
(A) Geiger Muller Counter
(B) Neon tubes
(C) Radiometric methods
(D) Photomultiplier tubes
Answer:Â (A)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Previous Year Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2020 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 July |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 June |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 December |
| UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2004 December |
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