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NTA UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
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1. Anaemia caused by Vitamin B-12 deficiency is
(A) Megaloblastic
(B) Pernicious
(C) Sickle cell
(D) All the above
Answer: (B)
2. Test to assess PEM in children in early stages is by
(A) Biochemical tests
(B) Anthropometry
(C) Pathological tests
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
3. Isoelectric point at which maximum coagulation of milk protein takes place:
(A) 4.2 pH
(B) 4.6 pH
(C) 5.4 pH
(D) 6.6 pH
Answer: (B)
4. Workman’s compensation is paid to a worker.
(A) On retirement
(B) As appreciation of work done
(C) On attaining injury at work
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
5. Contingency Approach is a method of Management
(A) Where the departments are divided into subsystems.
(B) Where the inventory or stock governs the activities.
(C) Entails using different approaches to problems.
(D) Where decision is made at the top level.
Answer: (C)
6. A clear fluid diet supplies
(A) Only carbohydrates and calories
(B) Only minerals and vitamins
(C) Only proteins and carbohydrates
(D) Only calories
Answer: (AB)
7. There must be alteration between active play and
(A) Group play
(B) Quiet play
(C) Solitary play
(D) Parallel play
Answer: (B)
8. Moderate hearing loss is indicated when a child can hear only at
(A) 26-40 decible
(B) 41-55 decible
(C) 56-70 decible
(D) 71-90 decible
Answer: (B)
9. Disability in reading is called
(A) Hemophilia
(B) Dyslexia
(C) Aphasia
(D) Dysgraphia
Answer: (B)
10. One of the motifs used in Bandhani is
(A) Burfi
(B) Ladoo-Jalebi
(C) Vajra
(D) Gopuram
Answer: (B)
11. Salt is added in dyeing for
(A) Absorption
(B) Exhaustion
(C) Solubility
(D) All the above
Answer: (B)
12. ‘GOTS’ stands for:
(A) Global Ozone Textile Services
(B) Global Organic Textile Standards
(C) Global Organic Textile Specifications
(D) Global Organic Terms and Standards
Answer: (B)
13. One of the type of utility is
(A) System utility
(B) Resource utility
(C) Diminishing utility
(D) Material utility
Answer: (C)
14. Attitudes, feelings and interests are:
(A) Cognitive component
(B) Affective component
(C) Temporal component
(D) Physical component
Answer: (B)
15. The ideal size for flash card is
(A) 22 × 28 inches
(B) 8 × 10 inches
(C) 10 × 12 inches
(D) 12 × 12 inches
Answer: (C)
16. The women centre created at the village level under National Mission for Empowerment of women is
(A) Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK)
(B) Poorna Shakti Kendra (PSK)
(C) Rashtriya Mahila Kendra (RMK)
(D) Mahila Vigyan Kendra (MVK)
Answer: (B)
17. The utilization of calcium is adversely affected by
I. Oxalate
II. Phytate
III. Oxidase
IV. Citrate
Code:
(A) I and III
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and II
Answer: (D)
18. Which of the following nutrients play an important role in the metabolism of Homocysteine?
I. Vitamin B-6
II. Thiamine
III. Vitamin B-12
IV. Folate
V. Calcium
Code:
(A) II, III, V
(B) III, IV, V
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, V
Answer: (C)
19. Identify the terms associated with cereal cooking:
a. Gelation
b. Gelatinization
c. Scum formation
d. Scorching
e. Retrogradation
f. Coagulation
Code:
(A) b, c and d
(B) a, b and e
(C) e, d and b
(D) e, b and f
Answer: (B)
20. Low sodium diet is recommended in:
I. Acute Hepatitis
II. NIDDM
III. Dyslipidemia
IV. CHF
V. Liver Cirrhosis
Code:
(A) IV, V
(B) I, V
(C) II, IV
(D) I, III
Answer: (A)
21. Put the following foods in increasing order according to their sodium content per 100 g
I. Banana
II. Egg
III. Tomato
IV. Spinach
V. Musk Melon
VI. Meat
Code:
(A) IV, V, III, I, VI, II
(B) I, III, IV, V, VI, II
(C) VI, I, III, IV, V, II
(D) III, IV, V, I, II, VI
Answer: (C)
22. The following tools are used for performance appraisal:
I. TQM
II. BARS
III. BEP
IV. RATING SCALE
V. PROCESS CHART
Code:
(A) I, II and IV
(B) II, IV and V
(C) V, IV and III
(D) III, I and V
Answer: (B)
23. The components of intelligence are
I. Hard work
II. Memory
III. Imagination
IV. Problem solving ability
Code:
(A) I, II and IV are correct.
(B) II, III and IV are correct.
(C) I and III are correct.
(D) All are correct.
Answer: (B)
24. Marriage laws are designed to protect
I. Safety of the individual
II. Safety of the society
III. Anti-dowry system
IV. Intercaste marriage
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) II and III are correct.
(C) II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and III are correct.
Answer: (A)
25. Antistatic finish on a textile fabric produces the following effects:
I. Improves the surface conductivity
II. Repels molecules of water from the surface of fabric
III. Develops an electric charge opposite that of a fibre
IV. Increase static build up
(A) II and III are correct.
(B) I and III are correct.
(C) III and IV are correct.
(D) IV and I are correct.
Answer: (B)
26. Traditional costumes of Egypt include
I. Gallebaya
II. Seblah
III. Jabla
IV. Yelek
Codes:
(A) II, III and IV are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) I, II and IV are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.
Answer: (C)
27. Following are the direct systems of yarn numbering:
I. Cotton count
II. Worsted count
III. Denier
IV. Tex
Codes:
(A) II, III are correct.
(B) III, IV are correct.
(C) I, II are correct.
(D) I, IV are correct.
Answer: (B)
28. Principles of design are,
I. Repitition
II. Balance
III. Movement
IV. Harmony
V. Rhythmic
VI. Background
Codes:
(A) I, II, IV, V
(B) II, VI, III, IV
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) I, III, VI, V
Answer: (A)
29. Following colours are cool colours:
I. Bluish green
II. Reddish orange
III. Blue
IV. Yellow orange
V. Green
Codes:
(A) I, II, III
(B) II, III, IV
(C) I, III, V
(D) III, IV, V
Answer: (C)
30. The order of components of workers input given by Bratton, is as below:
I. Cognitive component
II. Temporal component
III. Physical component
IV. Affective component
Codes:
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) IV, I, II, III
(C) III, IV, I, II
(D) I, III, II, IV
Answer: (B)
31. In teaching Home Science, which of the following laboratory experiences have important values?
I. Productive experiences
II. Participatory experiences
III. Experimental experiences
IV. Observation experiences
Codes:
(A) I, II and IV are correct.
(B) II, III and I are correct.
(C) I, III and IV are correct.
(D) III, IV and II are correct.
Answer: (B)
32. Women empowerment denotes
I. Freedom from the household work
II. Enable women to insist upon their rights and assert themselves
III. Development of the ability for women to make appropriate decision
IV. Hatred towards men
Codes:
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) II and III are correct.
(C) III and IV are correct.
(D) IV and II are correct.
Answer: (B)
33. The use of knowledge and abilities acquired through non-formal education can be evaluated in terms of
I. Personal development
II. Involvement in community activities
III. Competency in doing similar work
IV. Increased employment opportunities
Codes:
(A) I, II and III are correct.
(B) II, III and IV are correct.
(C) II, IV and I are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.
Answer: (D)
34. Assertion (A): Milk is a complete food for infants.
Reason (R): Weaning should be started only after 8 months.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (A)
35. Assertion (A): Bio-fortification is done to inhibit the natural enzymatic process and to increase shelf life.
Reason (R): It changes the nutritive content of food which delays the ripening process.
Code:
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (D)
36. Assertion (A): Infective hepatitis (Type A) is due to a virus generally transmitted through Air contamination.
Reason (R): The disease manifests symptoms like anorexia, fatigue, nausea, vomitting, fever, weight loss and jaundice.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(C) (A) is true and (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
37. Assertion (A): The system theory’s doctrine is that the whole of an entity is more than the sum of its parts.
Reason (R): This is based on cooperative synergistic working of members which is called PERT.
Code:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(B) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (A)
38. Assertion (A): Transition means adjustment to new values, expectations, interests and new set of behaviours.
Reason (R): In transition period always physical, intellectual and emotional changes take place.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
39. Assertion (A): When the counselor listens quietly to the counselee, the counselee feels relieved of his problems and develops inner strength.
Reason (R): The counselor’s duty is only listening and questioning.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(C) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
(D) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
Answer: (D)
40. Assertion (A): Height or length of children below the age of two years should be measured with an infantometer.
Reason (R): An infantometer is used for children who cannot stand properly.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
41. Assertion (A): Role of entrepreneur and manager is the same.
Reason (R): Both are risk takers and work for profit for an organizations.
Codes:
(A) (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Answer: (B)
42. Assertion (A): Plisse and seersucker have the same puckered effect.
Reason (R): Both are achieved by the same process.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
Answer: (A)
43. Assertion (A): Cross dyeing can produce multi-coloured fabrics.
Reason (R): Two or more fibre types in a fabric accept a different type of dye.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
44. Assertion (A): Rubber tile is affected adversely by oil, grease, and solvents and so it is not used for kitchen counter tops.
Reason (R): Kitchen counter tops made up of rubber tiles are damaged easily.
Code:
(A) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(B) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
Answer: (D)
45. Assertion (A): For planning a functional arrangement of centres, we require to examine, which centres are given choice locations and which are to be grouped together.
Reason (R): The centres that are focal points in the work should be located at last, determining the importance of various centres separately.
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is only partly true.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer: (D)
46. Assertion (A): Ergonomics is the application of human, biological science in conjunction with engineering science to the worker and his working environment and at the same time enhance productivity.
Reason (R): The focus of the study is an worker fatigue.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer: (A)
47. Assertion (A): Home Science education is broad based.
Reason (R): It has within its realm everything that has anything to do with family and community.
Code:
(A) (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) and (R) are not correct.
(C) (A) is correct, (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct, (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
48. Assertion (A): Audio-visual aids are not the best teaching aid.
Reason (R): In reality there is no best teaching aid. It all depends upon the situation on which the aids are used.
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is not correct
(C) (A) is not correct, (R) is correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct
Answer: (C)
49. Give the correct sequence of the enzymatic browning occurring in cut fruits.
I. D.O.P.A. formation
II. Polyphenolase comes in contact with air
III. Melanin formation
IV. Fruits are cut
V. Orthoquinones formation
Code:
(A) IV, II, I, V, III
(B) IV, III, V, II, I
(C) IV, II, III, V, I
(D) I, IV, III, II, V
Answer: (A)
50. Give the correct sequence of activities with respect to minimum to maximum energy expenditure. (Kcal/min)
I. Washing clothes
II. Reading and writing
III. Carpentery
IV. Watering plants
V. Jogging
VI. Bathing
VII. Cycling
Code:
(A) II, IV, VI, I, III, VII, V
(B) IV, III, I, V, II, VII, VI
(C) I, II, III, VII, IV, V, VI
(D) V, IV, VI, VII, III, II, I
Answer: (A)
51. Give the sequencial progression of symptoms in cirrhosis:
I. Malnutrition and Nacrosis of liver cells
II. G.I. disturbances
III. Ascitis
IV. Fibrosis
V. Oedema
VI. Easophageal varicose
Code:
(A) II, IV, I, III, VI, V
(B) II, IV, I, VI, V, III
(C) I, II, IV, V, III, VI
(D) I, II, VI, IV, V, III
Answer: (C)
52. Give the correct sequence of the steps involved in stepping up a receipe.
I. Evaluate the product and repeat till perfect
II. Double recipe and repeat to get consistent product
III. Prepare the product using original recipe
IV. Double recipe, evaluate and record change
V. If product is satisfactory enlarge by increment of 25 portion
VI. Adjust handling and cooking losses in enlarged quantity
Code:
(A) V, I, II, IV, VI, III
(B) III, I, IV, II, V, VI
(C) IV, I, II, VI, III, II
(D) II, I, IV, V, III, VI
Answer: (B)
53. Write the sequential order of the stages of family life cycle.
I. Establishing stage
II. Shrinking stage
III. Child rearing stage
IV. Expanding stage
V. Empty nest stage
Code:
(A) V, I, III, II, IV
(B) I, III, IV, II, V
(C) III, IV, I, V, II
(D) II, V, III, I, IV
Answer: (B)
54. Arrange the developmental tasks during early childhood period sequentially.
I. Learning to talk
II. Bladder control
III. Learning to walk
IV. Learning gender difference
V. Distinguishing right and wrong
VI. Getting ready to read
Codes:
(A) II, I, III, VI, IV, V
(B) V, II, III, VI, I, IV
(C) III, I, II, IV, VI, V
(D) I, III, IV, II, V, VI
Answer: (C)
55. What is the sequence followed in the manufacture of Denim?
I. Rope or sheet dyeing
II. Drawing in
III. Weaving using 3 × 1 twill
IV. Warping on sectional/direct warping
V. Sizing of yarn
Codes:
(A) I, IV, II, V, III
(B) II, IV, V, III, I
(C) IV, I, V, II, III
(D) II, IV, I, V, III
Answer: (C)
56. Give the correct sequence of printing with azoic dyes.
I. Diazotisation
II. Clearing Naphthol
III. Naptholation
IV. Coupling
Codes:
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) III, I, IV, II
(C) II, IV, I, III
(D) IV, III, II, I
Answer: (B)
57. How are colours classified? Indicate the correct sequence:
I. Primary
II. Secondary
III. Quarternary
IV. Tertiary
V. Intermediate
Codes:
(A) III, V, IV
(B) I, II, IV
(C) I, II, V
(D) V, I, II
Answer: (B)
58. Write the sequence of steps followed under throughout process management.
I. Sequencing
II. Activating
III. Implementing
IV. Prioritizing
V. Planning
VI. Adjusting
VII. Controlling
VIII. Checking
Codes:
(A) I, V, IV, VII, VI, VIII, II, I
(B) V, IV, I, III, II, VII, VIII, VI
(C) III, II, I, V, VI, VIII, VII, IV
(D) VII, VI, VIII, IV, I, III, II, V
Answer: (B)
59. Arrange in sequence the three aspects of National Literacy Mission
I. Continuing education
II. Total Literacy compaign
III. Post literacy programme
Codes:
(A) I, III, II
(B) II, I, III
(C) III, I, II
(D) II, III, I
Answer: (D)
60. In Edgar Dale’s cone of experience, the audio-visual aids are arranged in a cone with its purpose. Arrange in sequence the given experiences based on its division from the base of the cone.
I. Observing
II. Symbolizing
III. Doing
Codes:
(A) I, II, III
(B) III, II, I
(C) III, I, II
(D) II, I, III
Answer: (C)
61. Arrange in chronological order the experiments for rural reconstruction carried out in India.
I. F.L. Brayne Gurgaon Experiment
II. Lt. Col. Albert Mayer-Etawah Pilot Project
III. Rabindranath Tagore Sriniketan Project
IV. Spencer Hatch Marthandum Project
Code:
(A) I, III, IV, II
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) I, IV, III, II
(D) IV, II, I, III
Answer: (A)
62. Match the cookery term given in List – I with the Food products given in List – II.
List – I List – II
(Cookery term) (Food product)
(a) Cut and fold (i) Vegetable cutlet
(b) Bake blind (ii) Bread
(c) Coat (iii) Pineapple pastry
(d) Cream (iv) Bun
(e) Glaze (v) Fruit cake
(f) Knock back (vi) Jam tart
(vii) Biscuits
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
(A) (ii) (vi) (v) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (v) (iii) (i) (v) (iv) (ii)
(C) (iii) (vi) (i) (v) (iv) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (v) (iv) (vi) (iii)
Answer: (C)
63. Match Nutrient in List – I with the recommended intake in List – II.
List – I List – II
(Nutrient) (Recommended Intake)
(a) Fat (i) 25-30% of energy
(b) Carbohydrate (ii) 10-12% of energy
(c) Fibre (iii) < 300 mg/d
(d) Protein (iv) 50 – 60% of energy
(e) Cholesterol (v) 30 g/d
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) (ii) (v) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
(C) (i) (iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
(D) (v) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (C)
64. Match the oils given in List – I with the saturation level of fatty acids in List – II.
List – I List – II
(Oils) (Saturation of fatty acids)
(a) Mustard oil (i) TFAs
(b) Vanaspati (ii) Omega 6 PUFA
(c) Rice bran oil (iii) Omega 3 PUFA
(d) Safflower oil (iv) MUFA
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer: (D)
65. Match the terms in List – I with operations given in List – II.
List – I List – II
(Terms) (Operations)
(a) Menu standardized recipes (i) Purchase
(b) Invoice (ii) Sales
(c) Menu flyer (iii) Store
(d) Perpetual inventory (iv) Marketing
(e)KOT (v) Production
(f) Portable totes (vi) Delivery
(vii) HR Dept.
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
(A) (v) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (vi)
(B) (vii) (vi) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (vii) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (v) (vi) (i) (iii)
Answer: (A)
66. Match List – I with List – II.
List – I List – II
(a) Cleft palate (i) High risk pregnancy
(b) Toxemia (ii) 120-140
(c) Cephalocaudal (iii) Congenital
(d) Pulse rate of the new born (iv) 80-120
(v) Head to toe
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (v) (ii)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
Answer: (A)
67. Match the List – I with List – II.
List – I List – II
(a) Howard Gardner (i) Development tasks
(b) Havighurst (ii) Electra complex
(c) Freud S. (iii) Multiple intelligence theory
(d) Pavlov (iv) Stimulus response theory
(v) Field theory
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (B)
68. Match the thread packages given in List – I with their descriptions given in List – II.
List – I List – II
(a) Spools (i) Centreless thread packages
(b) Cops (ii) Used where thread consumption is high
(c) Cones (iii) Thread cross wound for stability
(d) Cacoons (iv) Smallest packages
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer: (B)
69. Match the traditional textile fabrics given in List – I with their descriptions given in List – II.
List – I List – II
(a) Telia Rumal (i) Woven shawl of Kashmir
(b) Kanikar (ii) Printed or painted textile of Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kalamkari (iii) Embroidered shawl of Kashmir
(d) Amlikar (iv) Resist dyed fabric
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (B)
70. Match List – I with List – II.
List – I List – II
(a) Utility (i) Availability
(b) Accessibility (ii) Alternative uses
(c) Interchangeability (iii) Replaced
(d) Substitution (iv) Value or worth
(v) Not given
(vi) Change
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (v) (iii)
(B) (v) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (vi) (i)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (D)
71. Match List – I with List – II.
List – I List – II
(a) Knowledge applied for solutions of problem (i) Intelligence
(b) Human quality contributes flexibility in living (ii) Judgment
(c) Ability to distinguish between alternatives (iii) Adaplability
(d)Willingness to take the lead (iv) Enthusiasm
(e) Well balanced health (v) Initiative
(vi) Accessibility
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) iv)
(B) (i) (vi) (v) (ii) (iii)
(C) (vi) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(D) (v) (ii) (i) (iii) (vi)
Answer: (A)
72. Match the items given in List – I with List –II .
List – I List – II
(a) Written form (i) Graphics
(b) Spoken form (ii) Debate
(c) Pictorial form (iii) Demonstrations
(d) Action form (iv) Circular letters
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: (D)
73. Match the types of learner evaluation given in List – I with its purpose given in List – II.
List – I List – II
(a) Initial evaluation (i) To know the improvement during learning
(b) Periodical progress evaluation (ii) How much learning has been retained and put to use
(c) Summative evaluation (iii) Level of learner at the time of Joins the programme
(d) Evaluation of retention learning (iv) How much learning has taken place
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (C)
74. Match the symptoms in List – I with the disease in List – I.
List – I List – II
(Symptoms) (Disease)
(a) Steatorrhea (i) Nephrotic syndrome
(b) Proteinuria (ii) Diabetes
(c) Negative Nitrogen balance (iii) Malabsorption syndrome
(d) Glycosuria (iv) Acute Renal Failure
(v) Gout
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (v) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (iv) (v) (i) (iii)
Answer: (C)
75. Match the organisations given in List – I with their role given in List – II.
List – I List – II
(a) AEPC (i) Making standards
(b) BIS (ii) Regulation
(c) UNICEF (iii) Exports
(d) NCERT (iv) Child health
(e) ICMR (v) Research
(vi) Education
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (v) (vi)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (vi) (v)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (v)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examinations paper-3 in Home Science was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper-2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Home Science paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Home Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
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