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NTA UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
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1. Match the following:
Thinker Principles
a. Mary Parker Follett i. Co-ordination
b. Henry Fayol ii. Elements of Management
c. F.W. Taylor iii. Scientific methods
d. Gilbreth and Taylor iv. Quantitative measurement
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iv ii i iii
(D) ii iv iii i
Answer: (A)
2. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of planning?
(A) It deals with future
(B) It involves selection of particular course of action
(C) It is pervasive
(D) It is not strategic
Answer: (D)
3. Premature evaluation is a type of
(A) semantic barrier
(B) psychological barrier
(C) organisational barrier
(D) personal barrier
Answer: (B)
4. Which of the following is not a feature of systems approach?
(A) A system is a combination of parts
(B) Parts and sub-parts are related to one another
(C) It is not necessary for a system to have a boundary
(D) System transforms inputs into outputs
Answer: (C)
5. Which of the following organisations is a two-dimensional structure?
(A) Functional structure
(B) Matrix structure
(C) Line structure
(D) Divisional structure
Answer: (B)
6. Job description includes information about
(A) Job responsibilities, duties and working conditions.
(B) Job responsibilities, duties and worth in terms of wage and salary.
(C) Job responsibilities and qualifications for performance.
(D) Job responsibilities, duties and qualifications for performance.
Answer: (A)
7. Differentiation between line and staff functions is necessary because it helps in
(A) providing specialized services.
(B) maintaining adequate checks and balances.
(C) maintaining accountability.
(D) All the above.
Answer: (D)
8. Which of the following refers to analysis of handwriting to determine writer’s basic personality traits?
(A) Kinesics
(B) Graphology
(C) Polygraphy
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: (B)
9. The five basic features of Scanlon plan of incentive payment are
(A) control, individuality, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.
(B) cooperation, identity, competence, involvement and sharing of benefits.
(C) control, individuality, commitment, involvement , and sharing of benefits.
(D) cooperation, identity, control, involvement and sharing of profits.
Answer: (B)
10. Which of the following is a process of systematically identifying, assessing and developing organisational leadership to enhance performance?
(A) Manpower planning
(B) Career planning
(C) Succession planning
(D) Human Resource planning
Answer: (C)
11. Who is the profounder of the socio-psychological approach to Human Resource Development?
(A) T.W. Schultz
(B) Lorraine Corner
(C) Lim Teck Ghee
(D) David McClelland
Answer: (D)
12. Read the following statements on HRD need analysis. Identify the one which is not true:
(A) HRD needs can be identified at strategic, organisational, operational, task and person levels
(B) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic, compliance oriented and proactive
(C) Competency mapping, performance appraisal and clarity of career paths identify HRD needs at task level only
(D) Task related KSA analysis and training need analysis are integral part of HRD need analysis
Answer: (C)
13. Assertion (A): Performance Appraisal cannot be error free and unbiased.
Reason (R): The Appraisal Methods are covertly influenced by human judgement which may be vitiated by inter-personal discriminatory impulses.
(A) Assertion (A) is right, Reason (R) is wrong.
(B) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is right.
(C) Reason (R) does not subscribe to the Assertion (A).
(D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are right, and Reason (R) validate Assertion (A).
Answer: (D)
14. Match the following theories of career planning with their propagators:
Theories of Career Planning Propagators
a. Career Anchor Model i. John Holland
b. Career Path Model ii. D.T. Hall
c. Career Choice Model iii. Edgar Schien
d. A Career Stages Model iv. Mondy, Noe and Premeanx
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii iv iii i
Answer: (C)
15. When Human Relations training is given to managers the method adopted is:
(A) In-Basket Exercise
(B) Role-play method
(C) Managerial Grid Training
(D) Sensitivity Training
Answer: (D)
16. When team-building can be attempted by creating artificial teams in which people get opportunity to experiment and learn from their behaviour in a less threatening context, it is based on:
(A) Behaviour Modification Approach
(B) Action Research Approach
(C) Simulation Approach
(D) Team Role Approach
Answer: (C)
17. Match the Themes with the respective approaches:
Approaches Themes
a. Sociotechnical system approach i. Appropriate managerial behaviour depends on elements of the situation
b. Democratic approach ii. employees’ attitudes influence their perception of work and their work experiences shape their attitudes
c. Contingency approach iii. Technology greatly influences organisational culture and structure which influence the attitude towards work.
d. Interactional approach iv. Involvement and empowerment of workers improve productivity
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iii ii iv i
Answer: (C)
18. Who has extended the Vroom’s Expectancy Theory of Motivation by suggesting that motivation is not equal to satisfaction and performance and by depicting what happens after performance?
(A) Harold Kelly
(B) Edward Tolman
(C) Alderfer
(D) Porter and Lawler
Answer: (D)
19. Which of the following is an invisible part but a powerful template that shapes, what happens at the workplace?
(A) Organisational culture
(B) Organisational climate
(C) Organisational dynamics
(D) Organisational structure
Answer: (A)
20. Match the following:
Needs Refers to
a. Intrinsic i. Recognition by boss
b. Extrinsic ii. Regular salary
c. Expressed iii. Self initiative
d. Wanted iv.Expecting others to initiate
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii ii iv i
Answer: (C)
21. The trusteeship approach to industrial relations was advocated by:
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Max Weber
(C) Allan Flanders
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: (D)
22. Which of the following is a machinery for the settlement of Industrial Disputes in India?
(A) National Commission on Labour
(B) Wage Board
(C) Industrial Tribunal
(D) Standing Labour Committee
Answer: (C)
23. In which year, the International Institute of Labour studies was established?
(A) 1919
(B) 1926
(C) 1950
(D) 1960
Answer: (D)
24. Match the following Acts/Code with the provisions:
Acts/Code Provision
a. The Trade Unions Act i. Retrenched and protected workmen
b. The code of Discipline ii. Collection of political forms
c. The Industrial Disputes Act iii. Recognition of Unions
d. The Model standing orders under the Central Industrial Employment (standing orders) Rules. iv. Disciplinary action for misconduct
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) ii iv i iii
Answer: (A)
25. Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier institutional structure’ of Industrial Relations?
(A) John T. Dunlop
(B) Allan Flanders
(C) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie
(D) Roy Adam
Answer: (C)
26. Which of the following is not a correct statement pertaining to the meaning of trade union?
(A) It is a continuous association of wage earners for maintaining or improving the conditions of their working lives.
(B) It is a society of individuals in one or more professions for the purpose of protecting and advancing, members’ economic interest.
(C) It is a combination with an objective of regulating the relation between workmen and workmen, workmen and employer, employer and employer
(D) It is any combination, whether temporary or permanent formed primarily for regulating relations between the two parties.
Answer: (B)
27. Who formed the Bombay Millhands Association?
(A) Sorabjee Shaprujee Bengali
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) N.M. Lokhande
(D) V.V. Giri
Answer: (C)
28. In which country the trade union movement began with industrial unions?
(A) Great Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) Canada
Answer: (C)
29. Which one is not a right of a recognized union?
(A) A right of ‘Check-off’
(B) To use notice board on the premises of the undertaking
(C) To appear on behalf of the union on domestic inquiry
(D) inspecting the undertaking
Answer: (A)
30. The criteria for recognition of trade union under the code of discipline are
(a) union claiming recognition should have been functioning for atleast one year after registration.
(b) the membership of a union should cover atleast 5% of the workers in that establishment.
(c) A union can claim recognition as representative union for an industry in a local area if it has 25% workers as members in that industry in that area.
(d) When a union is recognised there shall be no change in the position for 5 years.
(A) All the provisions are correct
(B) All the provisions are incorrect
(C) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(D) Only (d) and (b) are correct
Answer: (C)
31. Which of the following subjects is not enumerated in the ‘concurrent list’ of the Indian constitution?
(A) Oil fields
(B) Trade Unions
(C) Factories
(D) Vocational and technical training of labour
Answer: (A)
32. Which of the following statements relating to the Employees’ Compensation Act is not correct?
(A) This Act has a link with the Workmen’s Compensation Act
(B) This act is the outcome of the amendment that was made to the Workmen’s Compensation Act
(C) This act does not have any provision relating to temporary disablement of workmen
(D) This act has a provision relating to permanent partial disablement
Answer: (C)
33. Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman employee would get a medical bonus of:
(A) Rs. 3000
(B) Rs. 3500
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) Rs. 4500
Answer: (B)
34. Which section of the Factories Act deals with appointment of Welfare Officers?
(A) Section 45
(B) Section 49
(C) Section 51
(D) Section 55
Answer: (B)
35. The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 1988 provides for extension of the benefits to shops and commercial establishments employing a minimum of:
(A) 7 persons
(B) 8 persons
(C) 10 persons
(D) 20 persons
Answer: (D)
36. Which of the following is not considered to be a legal status for a registered union?
(A) No power to acquire and hold both movable and immovable property
(B) Power to contract with other entities
(C) Perpetual succession and common seal
(D) A body corporate by the name under which it is registered
Answer: (A)
37. Under the Minimum Wages Act, which of the following cannot be appointed by the appropriate government by notification under the official gazette for deciding claims arising out of payment of less than the minimum rates of wages?
(A) Any commissioner for Workmen’s compensation
(B) Any officers of the Central Government exercising functions as a Labour Commissioner for any region
(C) Any officer of the State Government not below the rank of Labour Commissioner
(D) Any officer not less than the rank of District Magistrate
Answer: (D)
38. Match the following according to the objectives of legislations:
a. Minimum Wages Act i. to ensure that wages payable are disbursed within prescribed time limit
b. Payment of Wages Act ii. to extend social justice by statutorily providing the remuneration legally due to an employed person
c. Equal Remuneration Act iii. to allow employees to legally share in the prosperity of the establishment contributed by capital, management and labour
d. Payment of Bonus Act iv. to prevent discrimination in the matter of employment and remuneration
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (B)
39. Which of the following is ‘true’ as per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act?
An employer need not issue any “Notice of Change” in respect of 4th Schedule of the Act.
(A) Where the change is affected in pursuance of any settlement.
(B) In respect of any matter specified in the schedule affecting workmen.
(C) In respect of conditions of service applicable to any workman.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (A)
40. Which of the following amendments of Industrial Employment (standing order) Act provided for payment of subsistence allowance by the employer to a suspended employee pending enquiry against him?
(A) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1956
(B) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1963
(C) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1982
(D) Industrial Employment (standing order) Amendment Act, 1961
Answer: (C)
41. The ‘New Lanark’ experiment is associated with:
(A) Human Relations at workplace
(B) Networking Organisations
(C) Welfare Movement in Industries
(D) Behavioural Theory
Answer: (C)
42. Social security provided by a ‘means test’ is called:
(A) Social Insurance
(B) Mutual Insurance
(C) Social Assurance
(D) Social Assistance
Answer: (D)
43. Match the following Themes with the concepts of Labour Welfare:
Themes Concepts of Labour Welfare
a. Labour Welfare is a desirable state of existence comprehending physical, mental, moral and emotional health or well-being. i. Relative concept
b. In planning for welfare, the individual alone should not be taken into consideration. ii. Positive concept
c. Welfare work differs over time and place. iii. Social concept
d. Welfare connotes atleast minimum desirable conditions of existence biologically and socially determined. iv. Total concept
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (D)
44. In which of the following approaches ‘good will’ is considered as an important goal of labour welfare work?
(A) Placating Theory
(B) Public Relations Theory
(C) Fundamental Theory
(D) Philanthropic Theory
Answer: (B)
45. For which of the following categories of workers, there is no provision for welfare fund?
(A) The Beedi workers
(B) Workers working in Mica Mines
(C) Cine Workers
(D) Workers working in the Printing Industry
Answer: (D)
46. Under which segment of the Indian Constitution, the Labour Policy is designed?
a. Preamble
b. Fundamental Rights
c. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. Fundamental Duties
(A) Only c
(B) a, b and c
(C) a and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Answer: (B)
47. The conversion of the ‘nominal wages’ into ‘Real Wages’ is done by which of the following indices?
(A) Human Development Index
(B) Poverty Index
(C) Wholesale Price Index
(D) Consumer Price Index
Answer: (D)
48. Match the following Themes of Theories of Wages with their propagators:
Themes of Wages Theory Propagator
a. “Labour is the real measure of the exchangeable value of all commodities.” i. David Ricardo
b. “The natural price of labour is that price which is necessary to enable the labourers to subsist and per- petuate their race without either increase or diminution.” ii. Michel Kalecki
c. “Wages cannot rise unless either the wage fund increases or the number of workers decreases.” iii. Adam Smith
d. “Wages are a residual, the level of real wages depending on what was left of the total product after capitalistic class had its cut.” iv. J.S.Mill
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iv ii iii i
Answer: (C)
49. Which of the following statements about wage differentials is not true?
(A) Wage differentials can be attributed to imperfections in employment market.
(B) Social prejudices do not influence the wage differentials.
(C) Inter-industry wage differentials are bound to occur.
(D) Geographical wage differentials are a common phenomenon.
Answer: (B)
50. Which of the following formulae is used for determining Minimum wages?
(A) Adarkar’s Formula
(B) Rege Committee’s Formula
(C) Dr. Aykroid’s Formula
(D) Royal Commission on Labour’s Formula
Answer: (C)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Previous Year Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Labour Welfare Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Labour Welfare Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2020 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 July |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2004 December |
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