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NTA UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
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1. Which of the following types of control involves evaluation of inputs and taking corrective actions before the operation is completed?
(A) Feed Forward Control
(B) Concurrent Control
(C) Feedback Control
(D) Forward Control
Answer: (A)
2. Which of the following is the process of systematically identifying, assessing and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance?
(A) Manpower Planning
(B) Career Planning
(C) Succession Planning
(D) Strategic Human Resource Planning
Answer: (C)
3. Which of the following is not a principle under the “Hot Stove Rule” of Douglas Mc Gregor?
(A) Advance Warning
(B) Impersonality and Impartiality
(C) Consistency
(D) Opportunity to defend
Answer: (D)
4. “Quality Circles in India”, the first book incorporating the process to be adopted in developing, implementing and sustaining quality circles, was authored by
(A) T.V. Rao
(B) D.M. Pestonzee
(C) Udai Pareek
(D) S.R. Udpa
Answer: (D)
5. The theory that categorized needs being concerned with survival, relationships and desire for personal development is popularly known as
(A) Need Hierarchy Theory
(B) Two Factor Theory
(C) ERG Theory
(D) Contingency Theory
Answer: (C)
6. Which of the following is/are part(s) of transformation process, is/are considered as a part of organizational development?
a. Implementing Strategic Planning and Alignment
b. Assessing the competitors strengths and weaknesses
c. Assessing the environment and changing organisational structure, systems and culture
d. Developing the work climate to enhance teamwork, trust and cooperation
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b, c and d
(C) a, c and d
(D) a, b and d
Answer: (C)
7. The International Institute of Labour Studies was established in the year:
(A) 1919
(B) 1960
(C) 1926
(D) 1978
Answer: (B)
8. Which of the following is an illegal industrial action as per law?
(A) Mutual Insurance
(B) Collective Bargaining
(C) Lock out
(D) Gherao
Answer: (D)
9. Compulsory collective bargaining was advocated by:
(A) G.L. Nanda
(B) Khandubhai Desai
(C) V.V. Giri
(D) Jagjivan Ram
Answer: (C)
10. The Journal Dinabandhu was being published by:
(A) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
(B) Bombay Mill Hands Association
(C) All India Trade Union Congress
(D) Madras Labour Union
Answer: (B)
11. Which of the following is the appropriate Government in relation to employment of workmen by a contractor for construction of Railway Staff Quarters in a State headquarters and fixation of minimum wages?
(A) The Central Government
(B) The concerned State Government
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B), but depends on the situation and appeal by the contractor
Answer: (A)
12. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, which of the following cannot be considered as an industrial despute?
(A) When employer fails to keep his verbal promises
(B) When closure is a pretence
(C) When demand made for alteration of conditions of service of employees in a cooperative society
(D) When the lock-out is in disguise of closure
Answer: (C)
13. Who had advanced the concepts of “Long Arm of Job” and “Social Invasion of Workplace” explaining the intricate relationship between intramural and extra-mural welfare?
(A) Emile Durkheim
(B) Herbert Spenser
(C) Amitai Etzioni
(D) Charles Spaulding
Answer: (D)
14. Which of the following is/are determinant(s) of supply of labour?
a. other wage rate
b. non-wage income
c. preferences for work versus leisure
d. number of qualified suppliers
(A) a and b
(B) a, b and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) b, c and d
Answer: (C)
15. Under which of the following incentive plans “a worker is quaranteed a minimum wage on the time basis. Then a standard time is fixed for the completion of every work and if the worker completes the work in less time, he is given bonus of the time actually saved in proportion to the total time”?
(A) Halsey Premium System
(B) Rowan Premium System
(C) Barth System
(D) Emerson Efficiency System
Answer: (B)
16. AFL-CIO in United States of America is a:
(A) Craft Union
(B) Industrial Union
(C) General Union
(D) National Union
Answer: (D)
17. Which of the following factor(s) is/are responsible for weakening the trade unions in India?
a. absence of rank and file leadership
b. absence of one union in one industry
c. politicization of unions
d. proactive management
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b, c and d
(C) a and b
(D) a only
Answer: (B)
18. During the National Emergency Period, how many schemes of workers’ participation in management were introduced by the Government of India?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: (B)
19. An association of crane operators in an industrial establishment is an example of:
(A) General Union
(B) Craft Union
(C) Industrial Union
(D) Industrial Federation
Answer: (B)
20. The factor, which does not include the substance of sound industrial relations policy at the macro-level is
(A) Business proposition, project development
(B) Structure of economy and labour market
(C) Structure of union and employers’ organisations
(D) Policies of the Government
Answer: (A)
21. Which is not an association of employers?
(A) CIE
(B) AIOE
(C) CITU
(D) IOE
Answer: (C)
22. Which of the following ‘Codes’ incorporates all the given statements?
(i) Every employee in an industry or unit shall have the freedom and right to join the union of his/her choice
(ii) There shall be no dual membership of unions
(iii) Uninhibited acceptance and respect for democratic functioning
(iv) Regular and democratic elections of executive bodies
(A) Inter-union code of conduct
(B) Code of Discipline
(C) Code of Practice
(D) Industrial Truce Resolution
Answer: (A)
23. Match the following measures suggested with the committees/ Commissions/ Acts.
Committees/ Commission/Act Measured Suggested
a. The Trade Unions Act i. Improvement of productions, unions to discourage absenteeism, and interruption of work
b. Royal Commission on Labour ii. Growth of collective bargaining recognition of union, prohibition of strikes & lockouts
c. Industrial Policy Resolution iii. Registration of Trade Unions
d. First National Commission on Labour iv. Appointment of Labour Officer
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iv ii iii i
Answer: (B)
24. Due to pursuit of Laissez-Faire policy in economic affairs in the past and faith in promoting autonomy in industrial relations, the government in United Kingdom has followed a policy of non-intervention in the sphere of industry. In this context, find out which of the following is not correct?
(A) The principle of collective bargaining be practised
(B) The principle of developing procedures for free and expeditious settlement
(C) The principle of protecting and saving workers from unfair labour practices
(D) The principle of association of workers in independent trade unions and employers’ association for development of industrial democracy
Answer: (C)
25. Which of the following is the main function of Labour Relations Act of United Kingdom?
(A) Regulating working conditons
(B) Licencing the industries
(C) Registration of unions
(D) Recognition of unions
Answer: (C)
26. Which of the following statements relating to the Factories Act is not true?
(A) There is a provision in the Act relating to the constitution of a Managing Committee for the management of the canteen.
(B) There is a provision in the Act regarding the setting up of a safety committee.
(C) The Act does not have a provision relating to the setting up of welfare committee.
(D) The Act has a provision relating to the establishment of a Grievance Committee.
Answer: (D)
27. What is the role of the Arbitration Board in United Kingdom?
(A) Agreement
(B) Settlement
(C) Award
(D) Collective Agreements Non-legal
Answer: (D)
28. Which of the following are tripartite bodies?
a. Indian Labour Conference
b. Wage Board
c. Standing Labour Committee
d. Works Committee
(A) a and b
(B) b and c
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Answer: (C)
29. During whose tenure as a union labour minister, the code of Discipline was adopted?
(A) V.V. Giri
(B) G.L. Nanda
(C) Khandubhai Desai
(D) P.A. Sangma
Answer: (B)
30. Which four of the Central Trade Union Organizations were signatories to the inter-union code of conduct?
(A) INTUC, AITUC, BMS and UTUC
(B) AITUC, BMS, CITU and HMS
(C) AITUC, HMS, INTUC and UTUC
(D) BMS, CITU, HMS and INTUC
Answer: (C)
31. Which of the following organizations received a bad publicity in the print and electronic media in 2005 for adopting unfair labour practices and causing police brutality on its workers?
(A) Maruti Udyog Limited
(B) Tata Motors
(C) Honda Motorcycles and Scooters India Limited
(D) Durgapur Steel Plant
Answer: (C)
32. The shifts that have been taking place in the collective bargaining front in India in the post-liberalisation period include
a. collective to individual contracts.
b. increased wages/incomes and benefits accompanied by erosion of job control.
c. concession bargaining.
d. Attendance, skill or performance-linked rather than age-weighted and seniority based wages and benefits.
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Answer: (D)
33. The Second National Commission on Labour recommended that a registered union should be given recognition as a single negotiating agent in an establishment through check-off system, if it is having a minimum of:
(A) 33 percent of workers as members
(B) 60 percent of workers as members
(C) 66 percent of workers as members
(D) 75 percent of workers as workers
Answer: (C)
34. The British Trades Union Congress was established in the year:
(A) 1862
(B) 1868
(C) 1892
(D) 1900
Answer: (B)
35. The National Apex Body was established in 1975 comprising of
(A) Representatives of employers belonging only to AIOE, and trade unions belonging only to INTUC
(B) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE, EFI and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and HMS
(C) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and AITUC
(D) Representatives of employers belonging to AIOE, EFI and AIMO and trade unions belonging to INTUC and AITUC
Answer: (B)
36. Which of the following is false:
(A) A Multinational Corporation (MNC) is registered in more than one country or has operations in more than one country.
(B) A Multinational Corporation produces and sells goods or services in various countries.
(C) A Multinational Corporation can also be referred to as an international corporation.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (D)
37. Fish bone diagram is also known as
(A) Kaizen Diagram
(B) Ishikawa Diagram
(C) Taguchi Diagram
(D) Pareto Diagram
Answer: (B)
38. Which of the following features characterize the Balance Score Card Method?
a. The score cards are cascading in nature and as such are all pervasive in an organization
b. It is supported by effective communication system
c. Standardization of goals is not rigid
d. Customer focus is an integral part of Balanced Score cards
(A) a, b and c
(B) b, c and d
(C) a, b, and d
(D) a, c and d
Answer: (C)
39. Affective competence, Intellectual competence and Action-oriented competence as components of key competencies of managers was proposed by
(A) Rabi Kanungo and Sashi B. Mishra
(B) Robert Katz
(C) Henry Mintzberg
(D) Thomas Durand
Answer: (A)
40. Which of the following statements about performance management are true?
a. It is a moving up process and there will be upheavals and odds
b. To integrate strategy and operation of performance management it would require planning, information and quality management system
c. The entire performance management system is based on reporting and measurement
d. Score carding is not central to the performance management system
(A) a and b
(B) b and c
(C) a, b and c
(D) b, c and d
Answer: (C)
41. Match the explanation relating to the sources of power mentioned below:
a. Reward Power i. the power legitimately does not belong to the person but gained by access to powerful sources
b. Legitimate Power ii. influencing by specialised skill gained by the person
c. Referrent Power iii. the authority to impose punishment
d. Expert Power iv. the power enjoyed due to hierarchical position
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Answer: (D)
42. What composes the ‘SMART’ goals?
(A) Simple, Monetary, Achieved, Reliable, Total
(B) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Time Bound
(C) Strategic, Measurable, Analytical, Reportable, Technical
(D) Strategic, Market oriented, Analytical, Reportable, Technical
Answer: (B)
43. Which of the following is correct about sustainable development?
(A) It aims at continuous development
(B) It deals with regular growth of social interest
(C) It meets the needs of present without hurting future generations
(D) It develops employees for growth of business
Answer: (C)
44. Based on his 14 principles, Edward Deming is a strong proponent of
(A) increase in quotas to enhance productivity.
(B) inspection at the end of production process.
(C) training and development of employees.
(D) creating quality slogans to motivate workforce.
Answer: (C)
45. Action learning is a training technique in which
(A) trainee is allowed to work full time analyzing and solving problems in other departments.
(B) trainee moves from department to department to broaden experience.
(C) trainee is presented with written description of organizational problem.
(D) trainee is sent for formal training outside the organisation.
Answer: (A)
46. Glass ceiling refers to
(A) Moderate difficulties in training of women workforce
(B) Artificial barriers based on attitudinal and organizational bias preventing career growth of women
(C) Personality weaknesses hindering career growth of women
(D) Transperency at higher levels in organisation
Answer: (B)
47. A person who is citizen of the country where MNC is headquartered, but working in another country with the same company is called
(A) Host Country Nationals
(B) Trans Country Nationals
(C) Third Country Nationals
(D) Parent Country Nationals
Answer: (D)
48. Which of the following is not a reason for increasing workforce diversity?
(A) Changing demographies
(B) Product Quality Consciousness
(C) Political and Legal Systems
(D) Globalisation of Business
Answer: (B)
49. Career in Human Resource Management means
(A) A status job
(B) A respectable consistent occupation
(C) A job where a person can earn livelihood
(D) The progression of a person in his occupation over the years
Answer: (D)
50. Which of the following is not an action of classical change programme?
(A) Refreezing
(B) Removing
(C) Moving
(D) Unfreezing
Answer: (B)
51. Which one of the following is an example of Golden-Handshake Scheme?
(A) Superannuation Retirement
(B) Voluntary Retirement
(C) Compulsory Retirement
(D) Retirement on account of disablement
Answer: (B)
52. Which of the following is/are technique(s) of Total Quality Management?
a. Six Sigma
b. Kaizen
c. Just-in-time Management
d. Business Process Reengineering
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Answer: (D)
53. Which one of the following contains the phases of organizational development arranged in sequential order?
(A) Entry into the organization, diagnosis, culture building and interventions
(B) Entry into the organization, diagnosis, interventions and culture building
(C) Entry into the organization, culture building, diagnosis and interventions
(D) Entry into the organization, interventions, diagnosis and culture building
Answer: (B)
54. ‘OCTAPACE’ – the concept for study of organisational climate was developed by
(A) Peter F. Drucker
(B) Peter Segne
(C) Udai Pareek
(D) Dharni P. Sinha
Answer: (C)
55. Which of the following is/are the root cause(s) of downsizing?
a. mechanisation and modernisation
b. cost cutting methods and effective communication
c. technological advancement and improvement in organisational performance
d. impact of globalisation
(A) only a
(B) a and b
(C) a, b and c
(D) a, b, c and d
Answer: (D)
56. Arrange in a sequence the following Acts in the order of years in which they were enacted from latest to earliest
a. The Mines Act
b. The Plantation Labour Act
c. The Factories Act
d. The Beedi and Cigar Workers (Conditions of Employment) Act
(A) a, b, c, d
(B) b, a, c, d
(C) d, b, a, c
(D) d, a, b, c
Answer: (D)
57. Which of the following statements is not true, when it is the issue of referring a dispute to a labour court under the Industrial Disputes Act?
(A) If the matter is related to matters specified in the second schedule, the appropriate government may refer it to the labour court.
(B) If the matter is related to the matters specified in the third schedule, the appropriate government may refer it to the labour court, provided the issue does not affect more than one hundred workmen.
(C) If the dispute in relation to which the central government is the appropriate government, it can refer it to the labour court constituted by the state government.
(D) If the matter is related to issue of national importance, the same can be referred to the labour court by the appropriate government.
Answer: (D)
58. What is/are common to the Factories Act, the Mines Act, and the Plantation Labour Act?
a. They are protective legislations
b. They are social security legislations
c. They are welfare legislations
d. They are wage legislations
(A) only a
(B) only c
(C) a and c
(D) b, c and d
Answer: (C)
59. Which of the following authorities has the power to prescribe the form of certificate of fitness to work in a factory under the Factories Act?
(A) The certifying surgeon
(B) The owner or occupier of the factory
(C) The Chief Inspector of Factories of the State
(D) The State Government
Answer: (D)
60. Which of the following statements about the Unorganised Sector Social Security Act, 2008 is not true?
(A) The Act gives a definition of ‘home-based worker’, and it is same as self-employed worker.
(B) It prescribes for making suitable welfare schemes for unorganized workers relating to life and disability cover, health and maternity benefits, and old age protection by the Central Government.
(C) The Act gives separate definitions of ‘unorganized worker’ and ‘wage worker’.
(D) It prescribes for making suitable welfare schemes for unorganized workers relating to provident fund, employee injury benefit, housing, educational schemes for children, skill upgradation of workers only by the State Government.
Answer: (A)
61. Which state in India was the first to enact a legislation governing migrant workers, which was later repealed by the central Inter-State Migrant Workmen Act in 1979?
(A) Maharastra
(B) Odisha
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (B)
62. Which part of the definition of ‘worker’ under the Factories Act is incomplete?
(A) A person employed directly or by or through any agency.
(B) With or without the knowledge of the principal employer.
(C) For remuneration
(D) In the manufacturing process
Answer: (C)
63. Assertion (A): Provisions of Employees’ compensation Act and Maternity Benefit Act do not apply to all industries.
Reason (R): Employees’ Compensation Act is a comprehensive social security legislation.
(A) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.
(B) (A) is right, but (R) does not related to the (A).
(C) (A) and (R) are right, and (R) validates the (A).
(D) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer: (C)
64. Which of the following statements about The Employees’ Provident Funds and (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act are true?
a. The Act is not applicable to cooperative societies employing less than 50 persons working with the aid of power.
b. It makes provision for pension scheme, including family pension.
c. There is no wage limit to be covered under the Act.
d. The Act has a provision relating to Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance Scheme.
(A) a, b and d
(B) a and c
(C) b, c and d
(D) a, c and d
Answer: (A)
65. Which of the following statements about the Grievance Redressal Machinery given under the Industrial not true?
(A) Every industrial establishment employing 20 or more workmen shall have one or more Grievance Redressal Committee.
(B) Grievance Redressal Committee can resolve any dispute arising in the industrial establishment.
(C) It is a bipartite committee with equal number of members representing the employer and workmen.
(D) There is a 45 days time limit from the date of written application to complete the proceedings.
Answer: (B)
66. Identify the false statement on ILO.
(A) ILO is a tripartite body.
(B) India was not a founding member of the ILO as it did not get its Independence.
(C) ILO has three organs, namely, the International Conference, the governing body, and the International Labour Office.
(D) ILO passes conventions and recommendations prescribing International Labour Standards.
Answer: (B)
67. Match the following Conventions of the ILO according to their incorporation in the concerned laws/source of laws in India.
Conventions Laws/Source of Laws
a. Holidays with pay convention (No. 52) i. Indian Constitution
b. Tripartite Constitution (International Standards) Convention (No. 144) ii. Factories Act
c. Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) iii. International
Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment & conditions of service) Act
d. Inspection of Emigrant convention (No. 21) iv. Minimum Wages Act
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii iv i ii
Answer: (A)
68. The Trade Unions Act empowers a trade union to create a General Fund for its administration and maintenance. A trade union purchased shares in the Unit Trust of India to enhance its General Fund Account. Which of the following is not correct as per law?
(A) The trade union can raise its fund by such type of investments.
(B) The trade union can raise its funds by such investments with the permission of appropriate government.
(C) The trade union can raise its fund by such investments with the consent of its general body.
(D) The trade union cannot do so as it is an attempt towards profit making.
Answer: (D)
69. While working at the construction of a multi-storeyed building of a company, a worker employed by a ‘contractor’, supplied by a ‘sirdar’, faced an accident and became temporarily disabled. For paying compensation to the worker, who shall be held responsible as per law?
(A) The contractor who employed the worker
(B) The sirdar who supplied the worker
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
70. The basic principle underlying the enactment of the Trade Unions Act is:
(A) To protect interests of workers against disregard of human elements in industries.
(B) To regulate the relationship of workers and their organization by regulating the balance of power.
(C) To provide strength to workers to settle the industrial disputes.
(D) To provide security to workers against the occupational hazards.
Answer: (B)
71. Which of the following contribute(s) as a principle of labour legislation?
a. Principle of International Obligation
b. Principle of Economic Development
c. Principle of Protection and Regulation
d. Principle of Social Justice
(A) c and d
(B) b, c and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) a, b, and d
Answer: (C)
72. For which of the following, the State Legislature has exclusive power to make laws?
(A) Shops and Commercial Establishments
(B) Vocational and Technical Training of Workers
(C) Participation in International Associations
(D) Social Security and Social Assistance
Answer: (A)
73. Which of the following is not the objective of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Bill proposed by the second National Commission on Labour?
(A) To ensure that no child would be deprived of a future being deprived of education.
(B) to ensure children not to work in situations where they are exploited.
(C) to prohibit child labour in all employments irrespective of their coverage under the existing Act.
(D) To tackle the problem of child labour by ensuring universal education.
Answer: (C)
74. Which of the following is/are factor(s) for enactment of a legislation regulating payment of remuneration due to workers?
a. Payment in kind
b. Payment in illegal tender
c. Irregular payments
d. Authorised deductions
(A) a, b and c
(B) a, b and d
(C) a, b, c and d
(D) b, c and d
Answer: (A)
75. What is the qualifying service to claim gratuity?
(A) 15 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 5 years
(D) No such prescription
Answer: (C)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Labour Welfare was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper-2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Labour Welfare paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Labour Welfare Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
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