NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Political Science, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.
You must have NTA UGC NET Political Science Solved Question Papers along with the latest Political Science Syllabus to enhance your semester exam preparation.
Here we have provided you with the complete guide on NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December.
NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Political Science exam.
Practicing these NTA UGC NET Political Science paper 3 Previous Year Question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December.
1. The word ‘theory’, derived from the Greek word ‘Theoria’ means
(A) A well organized political system
(B) A well focused mental look
(C) A well articulated economic structure
(D) A system of physical arrangement
Answer: (B)
2. Who, among the following, is not associated with decline of political theory?
(A) Peter Laslett
(B) David Easton
(C) Jean Blondel
(D) Alfred Cobban
Answer: (C)
3. Who said ‘negative liberty is superior to positive liberty’?
(A) J.S. Mill
(B) Isaiah Berlin
(C) T.H. Green
(D) Ernest Barker
Answer: (B)
4. Which one among the following statements is true?
(A) Social Justice violates the principles of equality.
(B) Social Justice is derived from moral reasonableness.
(C) Social justice is a negation of justice
(D) Social justice is an instrument of political manipulation.
Answer: (B)
5. Which one among the following was the first mass movement Mao led?
(A) The Cultural Revolution
(B) The Great Leap Forward
(C) Let hundred flowers blossom and hundred schools of thought contend.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
6. The term ‘Leninism’ was coined by
(A) Trotsky
(B) Stalin
(C) Marx
(D) Mao
Answer: (B)
7. Who is the author of the book The Good Boatman?
(A) Erikson
(B) Rajmohan Gandhi
(C) Romain Rolland
(D) Noema
Answer: (B)
8. Which one among the following statements is true?
(A) Plato’s Republic is a book on ethics
(B) It is a book on politics
(C) It is both on ethics and politics
(D) It is a book on education
Answer: (C)
9. Which one among the following is not written by M.N. Roy?
(A) The Future of Indian Politics
(B) Gandhism, Nationalism and Socialism
(C) New Humanism
(D) Nationalism, Rationality and Revolution
Answer: (D)
10. Who among the following has compared fortune with a woman?
(A) M.N. Roy
(B) Rousseau
(C) Hobbes
(D) Machiavelli
Answer: (D)
11. Which one among the following is not a work about alienation?
(A) Paris Manuscripts
(B) Theses on Feuerbach
(C) Poverty of Philosophy
(D) The German Ideology
Answer: (C)
12. General Will means
(A) Actual Will
(B) Majority Will
(C) Sum total of Wills
(D) Real Will
Answer: (D)
13. Assertion (A): Social Contract established a sovereign Government.
Reason (R): Citizens do have an absolute obligation to obey all laws or accept any form of Government.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
14. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below with reference to Aristotle and Plato:
List – I List – II
(Pure form) (Degenerated form)
a. Monarchy i. Democracy
b. Aristocracy ii. Tyranny
c. Polity iii. Oligarchy
d. Ideal State iv. Timocracy (First stage)
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i iv iii ii
Answer: (B)
15. What is the chronological correct sequence of the following books?
i. Richard Attenborough In Search of Gandhi.
ii. Louis Fisher The Life of Mahatma Gandhi
iii. E.H. Erikson Gandhi’s Truth
iv. J. Eaton Gandhi: Fighter Without a Sword
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) iv, ii, iii, i
(B) iii, i, ii, iv
(C) ii, iv, iii, ii
(D) i, ii, iv, iii
Answer: (A)
16. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(System Theorists) (System)
1. Bertallanfy a. a set of elements standing in interaction
2. Hall and Fagen b. a whole which is compounded of many parts
3. Easton c. a set of objects together with relationships between the objects and their attributes
4. Colin Cherry d. a set of interactions
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Answer: (A)
17. Who among the following presents a ‘flow model’ of political system?
(A) Gabriel Almond
(B) David Easton
(C) Morton Kaplan
(D) Oran Young
Answer: (B)
18. Almond borrowed most of the terminology of his approach from
(A) Robert K. Merton
(B) Talcott Parsons
(C) Malinowski
(D) Arthur Bentley
Answer: (B)
19. Who among the following attached great importance to a balance between the principles of equality and capacity in political development?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) Huntington
(C) Fred Riggs
(D) Danil Lerner
Answer: (C)
20. Who among the following is associated with the “will and capacity” approach to the study of political development?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) Organski
(C) Halpern
(D) David Apter
Answer: (C)
21. Who among the following has connected cultures with civilizations?
(A) Almond and Verba
(B) Huntington
(C) Lucian Pye
(D) Edward Shils
Answer: (B)
22. “We are under the Constitution but the Constitution is what the judges say it is”. Which of the following countries can this be applicable to?
1. India
2. America
3. Switzerland
4. Australia
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (B)
23. Who among the following has associated the origins of political parties with three theories – institutional theories, historical crisis theories and development theories?
(A) La Palombara and Myron Weiner
(B) Peter K. Merkl
(C) Harry Eckstein
(D) Jean Blondel
Answer: (A)
24. Which of the following statements are not correct?
1. The Swiss Federal Tribunal has the power to declare unconstitutional a law passed by the Federal Legislature.
2. The Communist Party is banned in the U.S.A.
3. The Constitution of India on the date of its commencement did have a provision that the advice of the Council of Ministers would be binding on the President.
4. Tories in England are known as Conservatives.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Answer: (D)
25. “There can be no comparison between the positions of number one and numbers two, three or four.” Who said this about the British Prime Minister?
(A) Harold Laski
(B) Margaret Thatcher
(C) Harold Wilson
(D) Winston Churchill
Answer: (D)
26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Once the leaders reach the pinnacle of power, nothing can bring them down.
Reason (R): The majority of human beings, according to Michels, are apathetic, indolent and slavish.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
27. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?
1. Pareto Circulation of elites
2. Mosca Theory of the masses
3. Michels Concept of mass mind
4. Gasset Political formula
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Answer: (A)
28. Which of the following countries have dual citizenship – National citizenship and State citizenship?
(A) India and U.S.A.
(B) India and Switzerland
(C) Switzerland and U.S.A.
(D) U.S.A. and U.K.
Answer: (C)
29. Which of the following statements are not correct?
1. The U.S. President can seek election to the office of President for any number of times.
2. The President of India has been sending messages to Parliament.
3. Two-thirds members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years.
4. The residuary powers rest with the States in the United States of America.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)
30. The elite theory was first started in
(A) The United States of America
(B) The United Kingdom
(C) Central and Western European Countries
(D) Australia
Answer: (C)
31. The Preamble of the Constitution of India enshrines the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity – ideals mainly inspired by the
(A) Russian Revolution
(B) Irish Revolution
(C) French Revolution
(D) Cultural Revolution
Answer: (C)
32. The name of a candidate for the Office of President of India is proposed by
(A) Any five citizens of India
(B) Any five Members of the Parliament
(C) Any fifty Members of the Electoral College
(D) Any ten members of the Electoral College
Answer: (D)
33. Which of the following Articles were not part of the original Constitution of India?
(i) Art. 52A
(ii) Art. 51A
(iii) Art. 14
(iv) Art. 300A
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
34. Who among the following former Presidents of India kept the ‘Indian Post Office Amendment Bill’ pending?
(A) Zakir Hussain
(B) V.V. Giri
(C) Zail Singh
(D) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
Answer: (C)
35. Who said ‘All Communalism is harmful’? The logic of minority Communalism is separatism, and majority communalism culminates in Fascism?
(A) Bhikhu Parekh
(B) T.N. Madan
(C) Bipin Chandra
(D) Ashish Nandy
Answer: (C)
36. Who wrote the book, “Democracy and Discontent”?
(A) James Manor
(B) Atul Kohli
(C) Zoya Hasan
(D) MSA Rao
Answer: (B)
37. Who emphasized the emergence of “a market polity” in India?
(A) Stanley A. Kochanek
(B) James Manor
(C) Morris-Jones
(D) Paul Brass
Answer: (C)
38. Who described the nature of Indian State as ‘incremental democratic modernization’?
(A) Morris John
(B) Rajni Kothari
(C) Francine Frankel
(D) Susan and Lloyd Rudolph
Answer: (B)
39. An alliance of national elites and the entrepreneurial class as a basis of development at the Centre does not preclude re-distributive concessions automatically.’ Who said?
(A) Partha Chatterjee
(B) AtulKohli
(C) Yogendra Yadav
(D) Paul Brass
Answer: (B)
40. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
Books Authors
a. Language, Religion and Politics i. Jagdish Bhagwati
b. Party building in a New Nation ii. Paul Brass
c. The Painful Transition: Bourgeois Democracy in India iii. Myron Weiner
d. India in Transition: Freeing the Economy iv. AchinVanaik
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii iv i
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) i iv iii ii
(D) iv i ii iii
Answer: (A)
41. Identify the correct sequence in which the following Committees were appointed. Use the code given below:
i. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
ii. L.M. Singhvi Committee
iii. G.V.K. Rao Committee
iv. Ashok Mehta Committee
Codes:
(A) i, iv, iii, ii
(B) ii, iii, i, iv
(C) iii, ii, iv, iii
(D) iv, i, ii, iii
Answer: (A)
42. Assertion (A): Political parties in India have expanded their reach but their legitimacy has been deeply eroded.
Reason (R): The consolidation of the party system at the State level cannot be aggregated at the National level.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
43. Which among the following Articles of the Constitution of India has ensured through legislation the participation of workers in management?
(A) Article 42
(B) Article 43
(C) Article 43A
(D) Article 49A
Answer: (C)
44. Who among the following termed Art. 356 as a “safety valve”?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: (B)
45. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
Books Authors
a. Dalit Visions : The Anti-Caste Movement and the Construction of Indian Identity i. Zoya Hasan
b. Peasant Movements in India ii. V. Venkatesan
c. Foreign Identities, Gender Communities and the State (Ed.) iii. Gail Omvedt
d. Institutionalising Panchayati Raj in India iv. D.N. Dhanagre
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii iv i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) i ii iii iv
(D) iv i ii iii
Answer: (B)
46. Consider the following statements about Civil Service in a developing society:
1. It should act as an instrument of change.
2. It should have concern for social equity.
3. It should have common concern for vested interests.
4. It should be politically neutral.
Select the correct statements from the codes given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C)
47. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Span of attention i. Mooney and Reiley
b. Scalar process ii. F.W. Taylor
c. Human Relations Theory iii. V.A. Graicunas
d. Functional Foremanship iv. Elton Mayo
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iii i iv ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) i iii ii iv
Answer: (B)
48. Which one of the following was not included as a principle of administration by Willoughby in his ‘Principles of Public Administration’?
(A) General and over head administration
(B) Coordination
(C) Finance
(D) Personnel administration
Answer: (B)
49. The principle of unity of command mainly ensures
(A) Accountability
(B) Specialization
(C) Acceptability
(D) Coordination
Answer: (A)
50. Which one of the following is not one of the main characteristics of Taylor’s scientific management?
(A) Time and motion studies
(B) Participation in decision making
(C) Differential piece-rate system
(D) Functional foremanship
Answer: (B)
51. Who among the following has called Weber’s ideal type of bureaucracy as unsuitable for developing societies?
(A) H. Simon
(B) Chester I. Barnard
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) Dwight Waldo
Answer: (C)
52. The Committee on Assurances of the Parliament of India is an instrument of
(A) Executive Control
(B) Judicial Control
(C) Civil-Society Control
(D) Legislative Control
Answer: (D)
53. According to Herbert Simon, if a decision is directed towards individual’s goal, it is
(A) Organizationally rational
(B) Personally rational
(C) Objectively rational
(D) Subjectively rational
Answer: (B)
54. The most logical criterion to distinguish a line function from staff is
(A) The functional relationship
(B) The authority relationship
(C) The grouping of functions
(D) The departmentalization
Answer: (B)
55. Central Vigilance Commission was setup on the recommendations of
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Gorwala Committee Report
(C) Kripalani Committee Report
(D) Santhanam Committee Report
Answer: (D)
56. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill 1968 passed by the Lok Sabha lapsed because
(A) Rajya Sabha rejected the Bill
(B) President withheld the Bill
(C) Joint Committee of the two Houses rejected the Bill
(D) Of early Dissolution of Fourth Lok Sabha
Answer: (D)
57. Which one of the following committee’s report said that Community Development Programme and National Extension Service had failed to evoke popular enthusiasm?
(A) Sarkaria Committee Report
(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee Report
(C) G.V.K. Rao Committee Report
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report
Answer: (D)
58. Which one of the following was not included by C. Rajagopalachari in the list of six fundamental requirements of a good administrator?
(A) Character
(B) Capacity to judge matters
(C) Expertise in technical matters
(D) Firmness in decision making
Answer: (C)
59. Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption was appointed in
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Answer: (B)
60. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Practical application of unity of command is not always possible.
Reason (R): Technical and administrative tasks require different kinds of supervision.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
61. What is neo-realism?
(A) An attempt to ignore the unpleasant realities of the world.
(B) An attempt to restate the basic ideas of realism in a more‘scientific’ form.
(C) A claims that international society is basically orderly and peaceful.
(D) A claim that individual human nature is central to an understanding of international politics.
Answer: (B)
62. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes below:
List – I List – II
(Author) (Book)
a. Hedley Bull i. Failed States
b. Noam Chomsky ii. Conflict and Defence
c. Robert Kaplan iii. Anarchial Society
d. Kenneth Boulding iv. Monsoon
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii i iv ii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) i iv iii ii
(D) iv ii i iii
Answer: (A)
63. Arrange the following international politics theorists in a chronological order from the codes given below:
(i) Reinhold Niebuhr
(ii) Immanuel Kant
(iii) Antonio Gramsci
(iv) Robert W. Cox
Codes:
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
Answer: (D)
64. What does RMA stand for?
(A) Revolution in Martial Affairs
(B) Revolution in Military Affairs
(C) Referendum in Military Affairs
(D) Raison d’etat in Mass Administration
Answer: (B)
65. What does Raison d’etat mean?
(A) The national interest
(B) The State ought to act reasonably at all times.
(C) Citizens need to be given very good reasons for obeying the State.
(D) Citizens should consume as many raisins as possible for a good and healthy life.
Answer: (A)
66. Why is reform of the Security Council problematic?
(A) Enlarging the permanent membership could impair decision making.
(B) None of the existing permanent members are keen to give up their seats.
(C) It is difficult to make an uncontroversial case for any of the potential new permanent members.
(D) All of the above.
Answer: (D)
67. Structural adjustment programmes require that
(A) Governments of poor countries should adopt privatization and other ‘liberalizing’ measures.
(B) States with weak economies should redistribute more resources to the poor.
(C) Governments of poor countries should knock down all ugly or dilapidated buildings.
(D) Ministers in under-performing countries should go on diets and keep fit.
Answer: (A)
68. Bandung Conference held in 1955 had the participation of representatives from
(A) Twenty two Asian countries
(B) Eighty Afro-Asian countries
(C) Twenty six African countries
(D) Twenty nine Afro-Asian countries
Answer: (D)
69. Who said, “Thus far the chief purpose of our military establishment has been to win wars. From now on its chief purpose must be to avert them.”?
(A) Paul Nitze
(B) George Kennan
(C) Bernard Brodie
(D) Robert Jervis
Answer: (C)
70. Arrange the following treaties and agreements in a chronological order.
Select the answer from the codes given below:
(i) Indo-US Nuclear Treaty
(ii) Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty
(iii) Tashkent Agreement
(iv) Shimla Agreement
Codes:
(A) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
Answer: (A)
71. Expand SORT.
(A) Strategic Offensive Reduction Treaty
(B) State Organization Replan Treaty
(C) Strategic Order Reorganization Treaty
(D) Security Organization Replan Treaty
Answer: (A)
72. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. India has signed the NPT.
2. China has not signed the NPT.
3. India and Pakistan have not signed the NPT.
4. NPT has been signed by Iran, North Korea.
(A) All are correct.
(B) All are false.
(C) 3 & 4 are correct.
(D) 1 & 2 are correct.
Answer: (C)
73. Identify which of the following are correct statements:
(i) India is a member of the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation [IORARC].
(ii) [IOR-ARC] helps better relations with Pakistan.
(iii) It defines the Exclusive Economic Zones.
(iv) Indian Ocean has no sea piracy.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(B) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer: (C)
74. The Axis of evil is a phrase deliberately used by President George W. Bush in January 2002 to characterize
(A) Iran, North Korea and Iraq
(B) Taliban, Al-Queda and LeT
(C) Cuba, Venezuela, Nicaragua
(D) Pakistan, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka
Answer: (A)
75. Martin Wight emphasized three philosophical traditions of International politics, they are
(A) Realism, Liberalism, Marxism
(B) Realism, Rationalism, Revolutionism
(C) Radicalism, Realism, Religion
(D) Neo-Realism, Neo-Liberalism, Constructivism
Answer: (B)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Political Science was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Political Science paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
We have covered the NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December.
If you have any questions about NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers, please let us know in the comment section.