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NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June
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1. Which among the following statements is not correct?
(A) Post-behavioural political theory inter-relates value and fact.
(B) Post-behavioural political theory is ethnocentric.
(C) Post-behavioural political theory is tied to action and relevancy.
(D) Post-behavioural political theory is change oriented.
Answer: (B)
2. Positive liberalism does not believe in
(A) Welfare State
(B) Nanny State
(C) State as a moral agency
(D) Minimal State
Answer: (D)
3. Marx does not believe in
(A) Human consciousness determines social existence
(B) Ideas are the reflections of the interplay of material forces
(C) The base determines the superstructure
(D) Matter is active and dynamic
Answer: (A)
4. Rawlsian concept of justice is based on
(A) Distributive principle
(B) Agreement principle
(C) Difference principle
(D) Joint method principle
Answer: (C)
5. The term ‘Ideology’ was first used in the year
(A) 1789
(B) 1792
(C) 1795
(D) 1797
Answer: (D)
6. Satyavir Ki Katha, translated into Gujarati by Gandhiji was from
(A) The Prince
(B) Dialogues of Plato
(C) The Social Contract
(D) War and Peace
Answer: (B)
7. Who adopted communism to Asiatic form?
(A) M.N. Roy
(B) Mao – Tse – Tung
(C) Lenin
(D) Trotsky
Answer: (B)
8. Which one among the following statements is correct?
(A) Platonic justice is a legal concept.
(B) The Greek word for Justice is dikaisune.
(C) Platonic justice meant true in word and deed and paying one’s debts to Gods and men.
(D) Platonic Justice consists in conformity to the laws and institutions laid down by the Sovereign for his benefit and enforced by his power.
Answer: (B)
9. Locke’s view on ‘state of nature’ is
(A) Pre-social
(B) Pre-political
(C) Pre-social and pre-political
(D) Social and Political
Answer: (B)
10. Which one among the following statements is true?
(A) The Prince deals with providing requirements for the maintenance of political instability in the Republics.
(B) The Discourses expounds the requirements for the maintenance of political instability in principalities.
(C) The Prince is concerned with the qualities of Princes; the Discourses place a greater emphasis on the civic demands on citizens.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (C)
11. Who said: “Human nature is an ensemble of social relations”?
(A) Gandhiji
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Aurobindo
(D) Mao
Answer: (B)
12. Aurobindo is mainly famous because of his
(A) Political Ideology
(B) Revolutionary Activities
(C) Life Divine
(D) Association with Mother
Answer: (C)
13. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Platonic justice represents a disposition to do the right thing.
Reason (R): It is good to be unjust but bad to suffer injustice.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
14. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Authors) (Books)
(a) Friedrich Hayek (i) The Politics
(b) John Rawls (ii) Idea of Justice
(c) Amartya Sen (iii) The Road to Serfdom
(d) Plato (iv) A Theory of Justice
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (B)
15. What is the correct sequence of the following in the Aristotle’s Theory of Causation?
(i) Material cause
(ii) Formal cause
(iii) Final cause
(iv) Efficient cause
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (D)
16. Who said that the structural– functional approach was weak in change, the social process approach was weak in politics and the comparative history approach was weak in theory?
(A) Huntington
(B) Paul F. Kress
(C) Jean Blondel
(D) Samir Amin
Answer: (S)
17. Who among the following interpreted functionalism as an alternative approach to Marxism?
(A) Paul F. Kress
(B) Nicholson and Reynolds
(C) W.G. Runciman
(D) Morton Kaplan
Answer: (C)
18. Which one of the following has tried to give an essentially engineering orientation to human behaviour?
(A) Input-output analysis
(B) Structural–functional approach
(C) Communications theory
(D) Behavioural approach
Answer: (C)
19. The characteristics of Almond’s political system mostly resemble those of the political system(s) of
(A) United States of America
(B) Scandinavian countries
(C) Developing countries
(D) Latin American countries
Answer: (A)
20. Who among the following identifies political development with the “institutionalisation of political organisations and procedures”?
(A) Huntington
(B) Lucian Pye
(C) Organski
(D) Almond
Answer: (A)
21. Which one of the following approaches/theories was first started as a critique of democracy and socialism?
(A) Elite theory
(B) Structural–functional approach
(C) Communications theory
(D) Game theory
Answer: (A)
22. Who among the following divided the non-competitive party system into one-party authoritarian, one party pluralistic and one-party totalitarian?
(A) Alan Ball
(B) La Palombara and Myron Weiner
(C) Harry Eckstein
(D) James Jupp
Answer: (B)
23. In which of the following forms of Government is the second chamber as indispensable part of legislature?
(A) Presidential
(B) Parliamentary
(C) Unitary
(D) Federal
Answer: (D)
24. Which one of the following books has a chapter on ‘Politics in India’?
(A) The Civic Culture Revisited
(B) Politics and Government
(C) Political Development and Social Change
(D) Comparative Politics Today
Answer: (D)
25. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Form of Government) (Name of the Country)
(a) Parliamentary, Federal, Republican (i) The United Kingdom
(b) Presidential, Federal, Republican (ii) India
(c) Parliamentary, Unitary, Monarchical (iii) France
(d) Parliamentary cum- Presidential, Unitary, Republican (iv) The United States of America
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: (D)
26. In which country all courts including all levels of the State Courts have the power of Judicial review?
(A) India
(B) Switzerland
(C) America
(D) Australia
Answer: (C)
27. The Indian Federal System differs from the American Federal System in respect of the following:
(1) Representation of the States in the Upper House of the Federal Legislature.
(2) Existence of a Written Constitution.
(3) Vesting of Residuary Powers.
(4) Dual Citizenship
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (3)
(D) (4) only
Answer: (B)
28. Which one of the following is the most important characteristic of a Parliamentary Government?
(A) Majority Rule
(B) Rule of Law
(C) Direct election of Member of Parliament
(D) Collective responsibility of the Executive to the Legislature
Answer: (D)
29. Which one of the following federal systems was taken as a model by K.C. Wheare for judging other federal systems?
(A) Australian federal system
(B) American federal system
(C) Swiss federal system
(D) Canadian federal system
Answer: (B)
30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes.
Assertion (A): Presidential system is suitable for meeting crises.
Reason (R): The President has a fixed tenure.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
31. The Constituent Assembly was setup under the
(A) Cripp Mission
(B) Cabinet Mission Plan
(C) Wavell Plan
(D) Nehru Report
Answer: (B)
32. Who said the following? ‘India’s Constitution was born more in fear and trepidation than in hope and inspiration’
(A) Paul Brass
(B) Myron Weiner
(C) K.C. Wheare
(D) Jennings
Answer: (A)
33. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution shields legislation from being declared unconstitutional and void?
(A) Art. 15 B
(B) Art. 51 A
(C) Art. 31 B
(D) Art. 29 A
Answer: (C)
34. Which of the following Amendments to the Indian Constitution has made Right to Education a Fundamental Right?
(A) 92nd
(B) 94th
(C) 93rd
(D) 91st
Answer: (C)
35. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) First Proclamation of Emergency was declared in 1962.
(B) Second Proclamation of Emergency was declared in 1971.
(C) Third Proclamation of Emergency was declared in 1975.
(D) Second and Third Proclamations of Emergency were revoked in 1978.
Answer: (D)
36. The power of Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute between the Centre and the States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Advisory and Appellate Jurisdiction
Answer: (C)
37. Who tried to period Indian politics in terms of the tussle between a “demand polity” and a “command polity”?
(A) Rajni Kothari
(B) Partha Chatterjee
(C) Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph
(D) Myron Weiner
Answer: (C)
38. Caste based reservations are labeled as
(A) Affirmative Action
(B) Positive Discrimination
(C) State Intervention
(D) Society Egalitarianism
Answer: (B)
39. Which of the following was headed by Raja Dhare and Nam Devdhasal?
(A) Dalit Tiger
(B) Bheem Shakti
(C) Dalit Panther
(D) Dalit Elephant
Answer: (C)
40. Lloyd and Susanne Rudolf saw the State in India as ‘Polymorphous’. What does it mean?
(A) Creature of manifold forms and orientation
(B) Creature of multiple layers
(C) Hybrid creature
(D) Constantly changing creature
Answer: (A)
41. Who is the author of ‘Political Economy of Development in India’?
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Subipta Kaviraj
(C) Pranab Bardhan
(D) Hanza Allavi
Answer: (C)
42. In order to ensure free and fair elections and to conduct all elections to the Panchayats, the power is vested with
(A) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(B) Chief Minister of the State
(C) State Election Commission
(D) Chief Secretary of the State
Answer: (C)
43. Assertion (A): The President of India is the Constitutional Head of the State.
Reason (R): All powers are vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Emergence of Muslim League (i) 1940
(b) Lucknow Pact (ii) 1906
(c) Motilal Nehru Report (iii) 1916
(d) Two-Nation Theory (iv) 1928
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Answer: (B)
45. What is the correct sequence of the following Presidents of India? Use the code given below:
(i) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(iii) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(iv) R. Venkataraman
(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer: (B)
46. Consider the following statements: In the area of organizational principles
(1) In working out organizational principles, Gulick was influenced by Fayol’s fourteen principles.
(2) Urwick warns against the ‘use of committees for the purpose of administration’
(3) Gulick gives no regard to the bases on which work may be divided.
(4) Fayol believed in the principle of ‘unity of command’.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (D)
47. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Frederick Herzberg (i) The Need Hierarchy
(b) Abraham Maslow (ii) The existence of ‘Clects’
(c) Fred W. Riggs (iii) Motivator – Hygiene Approach
(d) M.P. Follett (iv) Concept of Partnership
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (A)
48. According to Chester I. Barnard which one of the following is not correct about an order to be authoritative?
(A) It should conform to the purpose of the organization.
(B) It should be intelligible.
(C) It should be motivating monetarily.
(D) It should be feasible.
Answer: (C)
49. According to Mooney, conferring of specified authority by a higher authority is
(A) Decentralization
(B) Delegation
(D) Disintegration
Answer: (B)
50. Who defined development administration as “Action-oriented, goal-oriented administrative system”?
(A) Fred W. Riggs
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) Edward Weidner
Answer: (D)
51. According to David Nachmias and D.H. Rosenbloom, which one of the following is not a feature of participatory bureaucracy?
(A) Civil Service Associations to protect them from political tyranny.
(B) High level of social representativeness in a national bureaucracy.
(C) Participation of bureaucratic employees in decisions.
(D) Citizen participation in bureaucratic policy making
Answer: (A)
52. Who among the following introduced the concept of ‘Zone of Indifference’ in an organization?
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Douglas McGregor
(C) Chester I. Barnard
(D) Chris Argyris
Answer: (C)
53. Taylor’s concept of Mental Revolution stands for
(A) Cooperation, Harmony and Restricted output
(B) Restricted output and Cooperation
(C) Harmony and Cooperation
(D) Economy, Cooperation and restricted output.
Answer: (C)
54. Which of the following committee recommended two-tier Panchayatiraj institutions?
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(C) R.R. Diwakar Committee
(D) L.M. Singhvi Committee
Answer: (A)
55. When was the Central Vigilance Commission set up by the Government of India?
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1967
(D) 1971
Answer: (B)
56. Arrange the following committees in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Kripalani Committee
(ii) Santhanam Committee
(iii) Tek Chand Committee
(iv) Vivian Bose Committee
Codes:
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(C) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Answer: (D)
57. Which of the following committees recommended Block Level Planning?
(A) Hanumantha Rao Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(C) L.N. Singhvi Committee
(D) Dantwala Committee
Answer: (D)
58. Which among the following is not a feature of Liberalisation?
(A) Deregulation
(B) Debureaucratisation
(C) Disinvestment
(D) Statisation
Answer: (D)
59. The institution of ‘Ombudsman’ was first introduced in
(A) Denmark
(B) UK
(C) Sweden
(D) Switzerland
Answer: (C)
60. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Talking about responsibility, Follett maintains that “the distinction between those who manage and those who are managed is somewhat fading.’
Reason (R): ‘Each individual functon must be seen in terms of its interdependence with other functions’ in the organization.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
61. Which of the following was an important figure in the development of liberal perspectives on international politics?
(A) Thomas Hobbes
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Hans J. Morganthan
(D) Henry Kissinger
Answer: (B)
62. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Samuel P. Huntington (i) Retreat of the State
(b) Joseph Nye (ii) World Systems
(c) Susan Strange (iii) Clash of Civilizations
(d) Immanuel Wallerstein (iv) Soft Power
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (A)
63. The Bretton Woods Agreement
(A) led to a campaign to save the rainforest
(B) argues that the Soviet Union was a success of the unmixed economy
(C) led to the establishment of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(D) led to the establishment of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
Answer: (C)
64. According to many realists, how is international peace best secured?
(A) Concessions by peaceful States to powerful ones.
(B) A balance of power between States.
(C) Trying to spread democratic values throughout the world.
(D) A worldwide federation of States.
Answer: (B)
65. In the field of nuclear strategy what does MAD stand for?
(A) Missiles Are Dangerous
(B) Mammals Are Doomed
(C) Make America Die
(D) Mutually Assured Destruction
Answer: (D)
66. Who said the following, ‘War is Foreign Policy by other means”?
(A) Carl von Clausewitz
(B) Napoleon Bonaparte
(C) Quincy Wright
(D) Hugo Clausewitz
Answer: (A)
67. Non-alignment as India’s foreign policy meant
(A) neutrality
(B) equidistance between the three blocs during the cold war
(C) independence and judging each issue on its relevance to our national interest.
(D) interference into the internal affairs of other States.
Answer: (C)
68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): India is for nuclear disarmament at the global level and for a credible minimum deterrence at the regional level.
Reason (R): India’s nuclear policy has dual objectives.
Codes
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (A)
69. What is the correct sequence of the following Ministers of External Affairs of India?
(i) S.M. Krishna
(ii) Atal. B. Vajpayee
(iii) Pranab Mukherjee
(iv) Swarna Singh
Arrange the following chronologically from who came first:
(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Answer: (A)
70. “Indira Doctrine” is considered an important aspect of India’s foreign policy for it defines
(A) The objectives of India’s foreign policy.
(B) It equates India’s security with that of the region and the predominance of India.
(C) India’s security is coterminous with the region and any interference of external powers is taken as a threat to India’s security.
(D) Doctrine enunciated by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi which was for the neighbours.
Answer: (C)
71. The United Nations Charter is mainly
(A) largely concerned with individual human rights.
(B) wholly concerned with the relationshp between States.
(C) devoted to a wide range of subjects including peace, justice, freedom and economic and social rights.
(D) devoted to duties and rights of great, medium and small powers.
Answer: (C)
72. International society tradition is also known as the
(A) Anglo-American School of International Relations.
(B) English School of International Relations.
(C) European School of International Relations
(D) Alternative School of International Relations
Answer: (B)
73. The main purpose of the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord was
(A) India’s war against Tamils.
(B) India’s intention to partition Sri Lanka.
(C) To end the ethnic strife between the Sinhalese and Tamils.
(D) To legalise Tamil Militant groups.
Answer: (C)
74. The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) forum
(A) is part of a more general trend towards regional blocs?
(B) accounts for over half the world’s GDP
(C) has member states which include authoritarian regimes as well as democracies.
(D) All of the above are true.
Answer: (D)
75. The US approach to the Cold War was originally set out in
(A) The Nixon Doctrine
(B) The Marshall Plan
(C) The Monroe Doctrine
(D) The Truman Doctrine
Answer: (D)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Political Science was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
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| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
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| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
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