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NTA UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
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Read the following passage and answer the questions below (1 to 6):
The Central Government provides for environmental protection by ensuring safe management, handing and disposal of biomedical and radioactive waste. Biomedical waste means dry solid, fluid or liquid waste including its container and any intermediate product, which is generated during the diagnosis, treatment or immunisation of human beings or animals in research including the animal waste from slaughter houses. Disposal means discharge, deposit, dumping, and land filling or placing on land of any biomedical waste. There are persons and organisations responsible for these activities. The authorized persons include in-charge of a hospice such as hospital, nursing home, clinic, dispensary, laboratory, health centre, animal house, slaughter-houses including those established by or under the control of government, which generates and handles any biomedical wastes.
The combustible waste is converted into non-combustible by incineration. Some treatment is also done to render such waste non-hazardous to human health and environment.
1. Biomedical waste includes which of the following?
(A) Dry solid, fluid or liquid waste
(B) Waste generated during diagnosis, treatment and immunisation
(C) Wastes from slaughter houses
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
2. Safe disposal of hazardous waste is necessary for which of the following reasons?
(A) To safeguard human health and environment and observe the government rules
(B) To ensure clean environment.
(C) To make hospitals hazard free.
(D) To discard radioactive waste.
Answer: (A)
3. Disposal of waste refers to which of the following?
(A) Depositing the waste in far off place.
(B) Dumping the waste in landfills.
(C) Discharge, deposit, dumping and land fill by waste in places away from habitation.
(D) Collection of waste.
Answer: (C)
4. Nursing homes, laboratories, animal houses and slaughter houses are responsible for which of the following waste related activities?
(A) Providing healthcare
(B) Generating and handling biomedical wastes
(C) Producing meat and meat products
(D) Conducting diagnostic tests
Answer: (B)
5. Incineration is a process which issued to
(A) Convert combustible waste into non-combustible residue
(B) Collect ash from the waste
(C) Destroy waste
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
6. ‘Environmental Protection’ includes
(A) Safe management of waste
(B) Safe handling of waste
(C) Management and disposal of waste
(D) Safe management, handling and disposal of biomedical and radioactive waste.
Answer: (D)
7. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Rank-size Rule: City Size
(B) Logistic Curve: Pattern of Mortality
(C) Gini Coefficient: Concentration
(D) Whipple’s Index: Digit Preference
Answer: (B)
8. Match the contraceptive methods with the technique/ingredient:
Contraceptive Method Technique / Ingredient
a. Oral Pill i. Copper-T
b. Intra-uterine Device ii. Laparoscopy
c. Foam tablets iii. Non-scalpel Procedure
d. Female sterilization iv. Progestin
v. Spermicide
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv ii i iii
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) iv i v ii
Answer: (D)
9. Match List – I with List – II:
List – I List – II
a. Crude death rate i. Based on total population
b. General Fertility rate ii. Based on per thousand live births
c. Infant mortality rate iii. Based on female population of the reproductive age groups
d. Gross Reproductive Rate iv. Based on female births
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) i iii iv ii
(D) iv ii i iii
Answer: (B)
10. The PNDT Act was enacted to stop
(A) Legal Abortion
(B) Sex Selective Abortion
(C) Abortion Care to Unwed Mother
(D) Abortion Care to Rape Victims
Answer: (B)
11. Maximum life-time male migrants in India are observed in which of the following streams?
(A) Rural to Rural
(B) Rural to Urban
(C) Urban to Urban
(D) Urban to Rural
Answer: (A)
12. Percentage of life time female migrants in the total female population of India is around:
(A) 45 percent
(B) 35 percent
(C) 30 percent
(D) 25 percent
Answer: (A)
13. The maximum proportion of female headed households is found among:
(A) Christians
(B) Hindus
(C) Muslims
(D) Sikhs
Answer: (A)
14. Match the following List – I with List – II:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Contributions)
a. Lösch i. Land-use Theory
b. Todaro ii. Concentric-Zone Theory
c. Burgess iii. Migration Theory
d. Von Thunën iv. Central Place Theory
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (D)
15. Rural-urban fringe is a
(A) A functional zone around a city
(B) An administrative unit on the fringe of a city
(C) A commercial and industrial hub-buh of a city
(D) Green-belt surrounding the city
Answer: (A)
16. In Christaller’s model of central places, K-3 stands for
(A) Market-cum-Administrative Principle
(B) Transport Principle
(C) Market Principle
(D) Administrative Principle
Answer: (C)
17. In Christaller’s Central Place Theory, which one of the following alphabets represents the largest boundary of the region?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) G
(D) K
Answer: (C)
18. Rank-size Rule was originally put forward by
(A) Felix Auerbach (1913)
(B) C.W. Burgess (1925)
(C) Walther Christaller (1933)
(D) OHK Spate (1948)
Answer: (A)
19. Package of ante-natal services for a pregnant woman in Indian family welfare programme includes the following services:
(i) First check-up in first 12 weeks
(ii) At least three AN checkups during pregnancy
(iii) Consumption of at least 90 IFAs
(iv) At least one TT Full ante-natal coverage of a pregnant woman will mean the following:
(A) (i) + (ii) + (iii) + (iv)
(B) (ii) + (iii) + (iv)
(C) (i) + (ii) + (iii)
(D) (ii) + (iv)
Answer: (B)
20. According to the Sample Registration System in India, the level of infant mortality rate in India is close to the following figures:
(A) 50
(B) 45
(C) 30
(D) 48
Answer: (B)
21. The Sample Registration System does not provide data on
(A) Population composition by broad age groups.
(B) Sex and marital status
(C) Fertility and Mortality levels for India and bigger States separately for rural and urban areas.
(D) Couples currently and effectively protected in India by various methods.
Answer: (D)
22. Which among the following year Government of India conceived the Annual Health Survey?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Answer: (B)
23. Assertion (A): There are many environmental issues in India namely air pollution, water pollution, garbage disposal and high rate of growth of the country’s population.
Reason (R): Economic development and high rate of growth of the population is causing environmental issues.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
24. Who among the following proposed Wealth Flow Theory in the area of fertility?
(A) Malthus
(B) Caldwell
(C) Ravenstein
(D) Chandrasekharan
Answer: (B)
25. We use the method of age standardization of fertility to
(A) Exclude effect of age distribution in measuring fertility
(B) Exclude effect of differences in fertility
(C) Compare fertility in two population groups
(D) Compare age distribution in two populations
Answer: (C)
26. Who among the following has written the book ‘Population Bomb’?
(A) Notestein
(B) Keyfitz
(C) Paul Ehrlich
(D) Becker
Answer: (C)
27. High Density of Settlements occurs in the
(A) Equatorial Region
(B) Tropical Region
(C) Temperate Region
(D) Mediterranean Region
Answer: (B)
28. A metropolitan city in India is a city with a minimum population of
(A) One lakh
(B) Ten lakhs
(C) One crore
(D) Ten crores
Answer: (B)
29. The structure of a settlement at a given point of time, is a function of
(A) Forces of concentration
(B) Forces of dispersion
(C) Forces of nucleation
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
30. Central Place Theory is based on the principle of
(A) Uniformity
(B) Homogeneity
(C) Diversity
(D) Collectivity
Answer: (A)
31. A Central Place Region is a
(A) Formal region
(B) Functional Region
(C) Administrative Region
(D) Corporate Region
Answer: (B)
32. Arrange the following States by their current level of natural growth rate, from high to low.
i. Uttar Pradesh
ii. Bihar
iii. Madhya Pradesh
iv. Rajasthan
Codes:
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii i ii iv
Answer: (C)
33. Think of different columns of life tables like lx, nqx, nLx and TX. Survival ratio at age 15 to age 45 is computed as
(A) L45 / L15
(B) l45 / l15
(C) L45 / l15
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
34. Some important National/ International days are shown in List – I and their dates in List – II. Match the days with their dates:
List – I List – II
a. World Health Day i. April 7
b. World Breast- Feeding Day ii. August 1
c. World Heart Day iii. December 1
d. World AIDS Day iv. September 29
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) iii ii i iv
Answer: (B)
35. In India, sources of data for computation of TFR could be
I. Census
II. Sample Registration System
III. National Sample Surveys
IV. Periodic Sample Surveys
Code the combination of sources which are correct for India.
Codes:
(A) I, IV
(B) II, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, II
Answer: (B)
36. Arrange the following indicators according to their refinement level, from least to the most refined:
I. GFR
II. CBR
III. TMFR
IV. TFR
Codes:
(A) I II IV III
(B) II III I IV
(C) II I III IV
(D) II I IV III
Answer: (D)
37. What is ‘Kyoto Protocol’?
(A) International Agreement for Emission Education in the Convention on Climate Change.
(B) A city with this name in Japan.
(C) International Convention on urbanisation.
(D) Most urbanised city in Asia.
Answer: (A)
38. Rank, from higher to lower, the following North-Eastern States by their literacy level in 2011.
i. Meghalaya
ii. Nagaland
iii. Assam
iv. Mizoram
Codes:
(A) iv ii i iii
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv ii iii i
Answer: (A)
39. Rank the following Union Territories in ascending order by population density in 2011 Census:
a. NCT of Delhi
b. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
c. Chandigarh
d. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Codes:
(A) c b a d
(B) b c a d
(C) d b c a
(D) a c b d
Answer: (C)
40. DOTS is a national program to address
(A) Malaria
(B) Filaria
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Japanese Encephalitis
Answer: (C)
41. Arrange in ascending order the causes of maternal mortality in India.
i. Hypertensive disorders
ii. Sepsis
iii. Haemorrhage
iv. Abortion
Codes:
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (B)
42. As per 2011 Census, effective literacy rate in India is about
(A) 70 percent
(B) 80 percent
(C) 65 percent
(D) 50 percent
Answer: (A)
43. Which is the most literate district in India?
(A) Sherchip (Mizoram)
(B) Ernakulam (Kerala)
(C) Pune (Maharashtra)
(D) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
Answer: (A)
44. Which is not a part of the goals of National Population Policy 2000?
(A) Improve education level
(B) Improve age of marriage
(C) Address unmet needs of family planning methods
(D) Improve the economic status
Answer: (D)
45. Match the following national programmes with their objectives:
List – I List – II
a. Kishori Swasthya Yojana i. Employment
b. Janani Suraksha Yojana ii. Adolescent girls’ health
c. Integrated Child Development Scheme iii. Maternal Health
d. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme iv. Children below 5 years
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iv i iii ii
(D) iv ii i iii
Answer: (B)
46. Which of the following is the primary component of Janai Shishu Suraksha Yojana?
(A) Early Registration
(B) Institutional Birth
(C) Post Delivery Care
(D) All the Above
Answer: (D)
47. Which among the following States has the lowest maternal mortality ratio?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Goa
(D) Maharashtra
Answer: (A)
48. Which among the North-Eastern States of India has the highest fertility?
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Nagaland
(C) Assam
(D) Mizoram
Answer: (A)
49. National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in
(A) 2001
(B) 2003
(C) 2005
(D) 2007
Answer: (C)
50. According to 2011 Census, which of the following is the most urbanised State in India?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Goa
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (C)
51. ‘Health for All’ Declaration was signed in which city?
(A) Helsinki
(B) Rio de Janeiro
(C) Alma Ata
(D) Beijing
Answer: (C)
52. The last international convention on climate change was held in
(A) London
(B) Copenhagen
(C) Oslo
(D) Tokyo
Answer: (B)
53. Which of the following is not related to the study of fertility?
(A) Fecundity
(B) Birth Spacing
(C) Reproductive health
(D) Child immunization
Answer: (D)
54. Arrange the following cities in ascending order of their population size:
(a) Indore
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Darjeeling
(d) Srinagar
Codes:
(A) Srinagar, Bengaluru, Darjeeling, Indore
(B) Bengaluru, Indore, Darjeeling, Srinagar
(C) Srinagar, Darjeeling, Indore, Bengaluru
(D) Indore, Srinagar, Darjeeling, Bengaluru
Answer: (C)
55. Rank the following States, high to low, by percentage of population in ages 0 – 6 in 2011 Census:
i. Tamil Nadu
ii. Kerala
iii. Andhra Pradesh
iv. Karnataka
Codes:
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv ii i
Answer: (C)
56. Match the States (List – I) by rank in population size (List – II):
List – I List – II
a. West Bengal i. 1
b. Madhya Pradesh ii. 2
c. Andhra Pradesh iii. 3
d. Rajasthan iv. 4
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) i ii iii iv
Answer: (A)
57. Which of the following is not a goal of National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)?
(A) Reduction in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) and Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR).
(B) Universal access to public health services
(C) Prevention and control of communicable and non-communicable diseases
(D) Employment guarantee
Answer: (D)
58. Arrange the following States by their sex ratio in 2011 Census, high to low (sex ratio is defined females per 1000 males):
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Codes:
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(C) (d) (b) (a) (c)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Answer: (B)
59. Arrange the following North-Eastern States by their sex ratio (females per 1000 males) in 2011 Census, high to low:
(a) Sikkim
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Nagaland
(d) Manipur
Codes:
(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (d) (c) (b) (a)
(C) (a) (d) (c) (b)
(D) (b) (a) (c) (d)
Answer: (B)
60. Which of the following types of errors were evaluated in the Post Enumeration Survey (PES) of 2011 Census?
i. Omission
ii. Duplication
iii. Content of all items in the Census Schedule
iv. Content of some items in the Census Schedule
Codes:
(A) i ii iii
(B) i ii iv
(C) i ii
(D) iv
Answer: (B)
61. Which of the following is not an element of Intermediate variables in fertility analysis?
(A) Breast feeding
(B) Open birth interval
(C) Contraception
(D) Age of marriage
Answer: (B)
62. Rank, from higher to lower, the following four States of India according to their literacy rate in 2011:
i. Uttar Pradesh
ii. Bihar
iii. Rajasthan
iv. Madhya Pradesh
Codes:
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (B)
63. What is the correct number of questions in the household schedule (for population enumeration) used in 2011 Census?
(A) 35
(B) 21
(C) 29
(D) 26
Answer: (C)
64. National Health Policy was adopted in India in which of the following years?
(A) 1963
(B) 1973
(C) 1983
(D) 1993
Answer: (C)
65. When was the National Forest Policy formulated for the first time in the independent India?
(A) 1952
(B) 1961
(C) 1971
(D) 2002
Answer: (A)
66. NACO is an organisation which deals with which of the following health concerns?
(A) HIV/AIDS
(B) Kala Azar
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Typhoid
Answer: (A)
67. Which of the following services are not provided by the Anganwadi Centres?
(A) Immunisation and health check-ups
(B) Treatment of minor illnesses and referral
(C) Growth monitoring and supplementary feeding
(D) Water and sanitation
Answer: (D)
68. As per the norms for the health facilities in India, what population size should be served by a Primary Health Centre (PHC) in hilly and tribal areas?
(A) 20,000
(B) 50,000
(C) 1,00,000
(D) 10,000
Answer: (A)
69. Assertion (A): There is a decline in the number of families living below the poverty line in India since the last two decades.
Reason (R): Per Capita Income in India has increased during the last two decades.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
70. Assertion (A): Human loss and damage to property due to flash floods has become common in the Himalayan belt.
Reason (R): Global warming has led to environmental change.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
71. Nodal agency for Annual Health Survey (AHS) in India is
(A) International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS)
(B) Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India
(C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(D) Indian Council of Medical Research
Answer: (B)
72. Which of the following deaths are included in computation of neo-natal mortality rate?
(A) Foetal deaths after 28 weeks
(B) Deaths in the first week after birth
(C) Deaths in the first month after birth
(D) Deaths in the one to eleven months after birth
Answer: (C)
73. Arrange the following stages in order of their occurrence:
i. Foetus
ii. Neonate
iii. Embryo
iv. Post neonate
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) i ii iii iv
(D) ii i iv iii
Answer: (B)
74. Which of the following is not an institutional mechanism of National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)?
(A) Village Health and Sanitation Committee
(B) Rogi Kalyan Samiti
(C) State Health Mission
(D) Mahila Mandal
Answer: (D)
75. Assertion (A): Earth can support infinite time of its current population.
Reason (R): Over exploitation of natural ecosystem is the reason for the current natural disasters.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Population Studies was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper-2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Population Studies paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Population Studies Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
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