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NTA UGC NET Public Administration Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
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1. The book ‘The Intellectual Crisis in American Public Administration’ deals with
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Ecological Approach
(C) Developmental Approach
(D) Public Choice Approach
Answer:Â (D)
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2. Which one of the following is not Taylor’s mechanisms of Management?
(A) Using a routing system
(B) Employing a mnemonic system
(C) Employing a modern cost system
(D) Using a gang plank.
Answer:Â (D)
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3. Which is not true about the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
(A) Two Dominions were constituted – India and Pakistan.
(B) The Suzerainty of His Majesty over the Indian States would lapse.
(C) The Constituent Assembly would function as the Legislative Assembly for the interim period.
(D) The Governor General would have limited power to assent to any Bill in the name of His Majesty.
Answer:Â (D)
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4. The Royal Commission on Decentralisation was headed by
(A) Lord Dalhousie
(B) Lord HobHouse
(C) Lord Rippon
(D) Lord Mayo
Answer:Â (B)
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5. Who of the following has described authority as the supreme co-ordinating power?
(A) Karl Marx
(B) F.W. Riggs
(C) Max Weber
(D) Mooney and Reiley
Answer:Â (D)
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6. Which of the following are correct?
(i) Theory of Social and Economic Organisation: Max Weber
(ii) Models of Man: H.A. Simon
(iii) Organisation and Management: F.W. Taylor
(iv) Elements of Public Administration: F.M. Marx
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv), (i) and (iii)
Answer:Â (A)
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7. Which one of the following is not correct regarding Downs’ categorization of Bureaucrats?
(A) Climbers
(B) Voters
(C) Advocates
(D) Statesmen
Answer:Â (B)
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8. The phrase ‘developmental bureaucracy’ was coined by
(A) La Palambora
(B) Fred. W. Riggs
(C) William Siffin
(D) Edward Weidner
Answer:Â (A)
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9. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Vice-President of India?
(A) He may be removed by Impeachment.
(B) He may resign by writing to the President.
(C) He may be removed by a Rajya Sabha Resolution and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
(D) He may seek re-election for any number of times.
Answer:Â (A)
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10. The creation of the post of Policy Adviser in each department of England was suggested by
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Royal Committee
(C) Priestly Committee
(D) Appleby Committee
Answer:Â (A)
11. Who called the Indian Civil Services as the Steel frame of Indian Constitution?
(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Govind Ballabh Pant
Answer:Â (B)
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12. What is not an advantage of seniority principle of promotion?
(A) It is more objective and easier in application.
(B) It eliminates internal strife for advancement.
(C) It promotes general morale of the personnel.
(D) It affects the self-improvement efforts of personnel.
Answer:Â (D)
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13. A public personnel may face disciplinary action on the following basis:
(i) Inattention to duty
(ii) Inefficiency
(iii) Insubordination
(iv) Integrity
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer:Â (A)
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14. Which of the following motion is not related when the demand for grants are considered and passed by the Lok Sabha?
(A) Policy Cut Motion
(B) Censure Motion
(C) Economy Cut Motion
(D) Token Cut Motion
Answer:Â (B)
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15. What is not true about a Money Bill?
(A) It can be introduced in any of the House.
(B) The Speaker has the final power to decide its character.
(C) The President or Governor, as the case may be, has limited powers in case of a Money Bill.
(D) It shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the President or Governor, as the case may be.
Answer:Â (A)
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16. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) University Grants Commission
(D) Election Commission
Answer:Â (C)
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17. The Statutory Status was given to the erstwhile Minorities Commission in the year:
(A) 1994
(B) 1978
(C) 1993
(D) 1990
Answer:Â (A)
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18. Which Independent State merged into Indian Union with the consent of the people?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Goa
(D) Hyderabad
Answer:Â (B)
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19. Who opposed the entry of Political Parties to the Local Bodies Election?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Jaiprakash Narayan
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Abdul Kalam Azad
Answer:Â (B)
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20. Which one of the following Institutions is responsible for Social Audit?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Village Panchayat
(C) Intermediate Panchayat (Panchayat Samiti)
(D) District Panchayat (Zila Parishad)
Answer:Â (A)
21. Assertion (A): Public Administration is concerned with the management of public programmes.
Reason (R): Public Administration is policy-making.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (B)
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22. Assertion (A): The Chief Secretary at the State level does not have a fixed tenure.
Reason (R): The First Administrative Reforms Commission did not make a specific recommendation in this regard.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (C)
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23. Assertion (A): Kautilya’s King is the fountain of justice.
Reason (R): The King administers justice in accordance with edicts and evidence.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (A)
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24. Assertion (A): According to Bernard, authority resides in the relationship between a superior and its acceptance by a subordinate.
Reason (R): To Barnard, authority is the character of an order in an organization by virtue of which it is accepted.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (A)
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25. Assertion (A): The U.S.A. has no machinery analogous to the Whitley Councils of the U.K.
Reason (R): The U.S.A. is a traditional home of patronage bureaucracy.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (B)
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26. Assertion (A): Methods of legislative control over administration in a parliamentary system are different from those in a presidential one.
Reason (R): In the presidential system of the United States, powers of administration are vested in the President.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (B)
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27. Assertion (A): Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) promotes harmony between the employees and employer.
Reason (R): Redressal of employees grievances boosts up their moral.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (A)
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28. Assertion (A): The relationship of a Minister and a Civil Servant is that of a Master and a Servant.
Reason (R): A Civil Servant is required to render honest advice to the Minister.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (D)
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29. Assertion (A): Transparency in administration is a salient feature of good governance.
Reason (R): The R.T.I. Act, 2005 has contributed in ensuring good governance.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (A)
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30. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj Institutions could not become effective even after 73rdConstitutional Amendment.
Reason (R): State Governments have not given adequate powers, finances and personnel to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer:Â (A)
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31. What is correct about the formation of new State/s in Indian Union? Use the codes given below for correct answer:
(i) It can be done by separation of territory from any existing State.
(ii) It can be done by uniting two or more States or part of States.
(iii) The creation of new States can be accomplished by an ordinary legislation.
(iv) The Parliament cannot alter the territory of the States without their consent.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer:Â (B)
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32. Arrange the following in correct sequence of their evolution in the discipline of Public Administration. Use the codes given below for answer:
(i) Motivation – Hygiene Theory
(ii) Ecological Approach
(iii) Needs Hierarchy Theory
(iv) Scientific Management Approach
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Answer:Â (C)
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33. Arrange the following works in their chronological order. Use the codes given below for answer:
(i) Papers for the Science of Administration
(ii) The Principles of Scientific Management
(iii) Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence
(iv) Motivation and Personality
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Answer:Â (B
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34. Arrange Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs in descending order:
(i) Social Needs
(ii) Self-actualisation Needs
(iii) Physiological Needs
(iv) Ego Needs
(v) Security Needs
Codes:
(A) (iii), (v), (i), (iv) and (ii)
(B) (iii), (v), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii) and (v)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i), (v) and (iii)
Answer:Â (D)
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35. Arrange the following experiments conducted by Elton Mayo in the chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Mass interviewing programme
(ii) Textile Mill Experiment
(iii) Illumination Experiment
(iv) Bank Wiring Experience
Codes:
(A) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv) and (iii)
Answer:Â (A)
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36. What is the correct sequence of Scientific Research? Answer by using the codes given below:
(i) Formulation of Hypothesis
(ii) Selection of Problem
(iii) Generalization
(iv) Collection and Analysis of data
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Answer:Â (B)
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37. Arrange the following in order of sequence regarding requirements for a rational policy:
(i) Identification of policy alternatives to attain goals.
(ii) Analysing cost benefits of policy alternatives.
(iii) Selecting the most efficient policy alternatives.
(iv) Identification and ranking of goals.
Codes:
(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (i), (ii) , (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Answer:Â (B)
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38. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                   List – II
a. Chester Barnard                 i. Models of Man
b. Herbert Simon                    ii. The Human Side of Enterprise
c. M.P. Follett                        iii. The Functions of the Executive
d. Douglas McGregor                        iv. Creative Experience
Codes:
     a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Answer:Â (C)
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39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                   List – II
a. Classical Theory                 i. Interaction between Organisation and Environment
b. Behavioural Approach       ii. Shop floor activities of Organisation
c. Systems Approach             iii. Formulation of Principles of Organisation
d. Scientific Management      iv. People in the Organisation
Codes:
      a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) i ii iv iii
Answer:Â (C)
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40. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                   List – II
a. M.P. Follett                        i. The Ecology of Public Administration
b. Hergberg                            ii. Dynamic Administration
c. F.W. Riggs                         iii. Motivation and Personality
d. A. Maslow                         iv. The Motivation to work
Codes:
     a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer:Â (A)
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41. Match List – I with List – II and select correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                               List – II
a. Autocratic decision making           i. Making decision with participation
b. Democratic decision making          ii. Making decision with little consultation
c. Rational decision making               iii.Making decisions on the basis of calculation and choosing the best option
d. Consultative decision making        iv Making decision by inviting opinions
Codes:
     a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii ii iv i
Answer:Â (B)
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42. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                       List – II
a. Theory – X             i. Integration of behaviour is the key process in Management.
b. Theory – Y             ii. Calls for vertical job loading.
c. Job Enrichment      iii. Based on the traditional conception of control and command.
d. Job Enlargement    iv. To provide more control over one’s activities and greater participation in decisions.
Codes:
     a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iii i ii iv
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) i iv ii iii
Answer:Â (B)
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43. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                               List – II
a. R. Blake and J. Mouton                 i. Path-goal Theory
b. Fred Fiedler                                   ii. Managerial grid
c. Robert House                                 iii. Life Cycle Theory
d. P. Hersey and K. Blanchard          iv. Theory of Leadership Effectiveness
Codes:
     a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iv iii i
(D) i ii iv iii
Answer:Â (A)
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44. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                                                                                                       List – II
a. Power of the Union or the State to frame recruitment rules for public services    i. Article 309
b. Safeguards and protection of civil servants against arbitrary executive orders     ii. Article 310
c. Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States                                iii. Article 311
d. Creation of All India Services                                                                               iv. Article 312
v. Article 315
Codes:
     a b c d
(A) i ii iii v
(B) ii iii v iv
(C) ii iii iv v
(D) i iii v iv
Answer:Â (D)
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45. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                               List – II
a. Dismissal                            i. Is not a punishment and an employee cannot claim protection against it under Article 311.
b. Removal                             ii. Does not make one unfit for reemployment under the Government
c. Suspension                         iii. Makes one ineligible for reemployment under the Government
d. Compulsory Retirement     iv. Does not attract the safeguard of Article 311(2)
Codes:
     a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv i ii iii
Answer:Â (C)
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46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List – I                                                           List – II
a. Public Accounts Committee                      i. Suggests alternative policies for bringing efficiency and economy in administration.
b. Estimates Committee                                 ii. Comprises of members from both the Houses.
c. Committee on Public Undertakings           iii. Scrutinizes the report of CAG in regard to the appropriation accounts of the Government.
d. Joint Parliamentary Committee                 iv. An adhoc Committee of the Parliament.
Codes:
     a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) iii i ii iv
(D) iii ii iv i
Answer:Â (C)
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Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage (47 – 50):
Kautilya’s Arthashastra is a treatise concerned with political science and public administration as much as it is with statecraft, economy and diplomacy. It is written with the practical aim of showing how the Government ought to be run. It is also a highly polemical discourse that has astonished scholars, particularly on the themes of violence, conspiracies, espionage, etc. From that point of view, it is highly embarrassing to put forth the Arthashastra as the symbol of Indian political thought together with what Greece has to offer by way of Plato’s Republic and Laws, and Aristotle’s Politics. However, the fact remains that Kautilya recommended such measures only against enemies and traitors in emergencies. His proposition was that politics and ethics do not mix easily. That does not mean that Kautilya disregarded ethics or morality. What he meant was that there is a difference between individual and public morality. Kautilya made no serious attempt at theory building. At best, he described and discussed empirical reality and was normative and prescriptive in his treatment. He was keen on efficiency and rationality aspects of administration. His maxims of administration include characteristics like hierarchy, defined competence of each office, selection by merit, promotion by seniority, compensation, training and discipline. The Arthashastra has many insights and lessons to offer even to the present-day students and practitioners of public administration.
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47. Explain the main focus of Arthashastra.
(A) It is concerned with statecraft, economy and diplomacy.
(B) It is only a concept formation.
(C) It is not a practical guide to administration.
(D) It is not a symbol of Indian Political Thought.
Answer:Â (A)
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48. Why Kautilya insists the themes of violence, conspiracies and espionage
(A) It is a practical way to run Government.
(B) It is a diplomatic strategy.
(C) It is a matter of normal administration.
(D) It is concerned with morality.
Answer:Â (A)
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49. Analyse the relation between politics and ethics as mentioned by Arthashastra.
(A) The phenomena of politics and ethics are separate.
(B) Politics and ethics do not go together easily.
(C) Kautilya disregards ethics.
(D) Kautilya insists morality.
Answer:Â (B)
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50. Kautilya concentrates more on practical administration but not on
(A) Theory building.
(B) Efficiency in administration.
(C) Maximus of administration.
(D) The rationality of administration.
Answer:Â (A)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Public Administration Paper 2 Previous Year Question Papers
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