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NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
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1. Which of the following is not a recommendation of a WHO study group 2011, for recording blood pressure?
(A) Record B.P. in a sitting position
(B) Measure B.P. thrice over a period of at least 3 minutes
(C) Take the average of three readings as correct B.P
(D) Use one arm consistently
Answer:Â (C)
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2. Tobacco use is associated with all the following cancers except:
(A) Bladder
(B) Liver
(C) Pancrease
(D) Pharynx
Answer:Â (B)
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3. Glycosylated haemoglobin is indicative of mean blood glucose levels during the past
(A) 2-3 days
(B) 2-3 weeks
(C) 2-3 months
(D) 2-3 years
Answer:Â (C)
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4. Provision of concentrated solution of Vitamin A to every child from 9 months to 5 years of age as a prophylactic dose, every 6 monthly was supported by
(A) UNICEF
(B) WHO
(C) UNDP
(D) World Bank
Answer:Â (A)
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5. What is meant by an exclusive breast feeding during first six months of Infancy?
(A) Feeding only breast milk including colostrum
(B) Feeding only breast milk excluding colostrum
(C) Feeding breast milk and boiled water
(D) Feeding breast milk and sugar water
Answer:Â (A)
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6. Pap smear test for women is currently recommended at
(A) every year in women aged more than 35 years.
(B) beginning of sexual activity and every year after that.
(C) beginning of sexual activity and every 3 years after that.
(D) every year in married women.
Answer:Â (C)
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7. Exposure to radiation in mammography is
(A) more than 10 times higher radiation risk than M chest X-rays.
(B) same radiation risk as chest X-Ray.
(C) Lower radiation risk than a chest X-ray.
(D) No risk of radiation.
Answer:Â (A)
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8. The follow up prescribed for a woman after IUCD insertation is
(A) every month for one year.
(B) after her first and third menstrual periods and 6 months after that.
(C) after her first menstrual period and 6 months after that.
(D) after three months and every month thereafter.
Answer:Â (B)
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9. Special Newborn Care Unit (SNCU) should be there in
(A) any facility with more than 1000 deliveries per year.
(B) any facility with more than 1,000 deliveries per month.
(C) any facility with more than 3000 deliveries per month.
(D) any facility with more than 3000 deliveries per year.
Answer:Â (D)
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10. The level at which increase in knowledge is brought about by communication is known as
(A) Cognitive domen
(B) Affective domen
(C) Psychomotor domen
(D) Social domen
Answer:Â (A)
11. Which of the following vaccines are given at birth in India as per National Immunization schedule?
I. BCG
II. OPV
III. Hepatitis-B
IV. Hepatitis-A
(A) I, II, III are correct.
(B) II, III, IV are correct.
(C) I, II, IV are correct.
(D) III, IV, I are correct.
Answer:Â (A)
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12. Following are the asymmetrical frequency distributions:
I. Skewed distribution
II. Normal distribution
III. Bimodal distribution
IV. ‘J’ shaped distribution
(A) I, II, III are correct.
(B) I, III, IV are correct.
(C) II, III, IV are correct.
(D) I, II, IV are correct.
Answer:Â (B)
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13. Which of the following are true regarding point source epidemic?
I. All cases occur abruptly and simultaneously.
II. Children are most commonly affected.
III. Occurs with a specified incubation period.
IV. The epidemic curve rises and falls rapidly.
(A) I, III, IV are correct.
(B) II, III, IV are correct.
(C) II, III are correct.
(D) I, II are correct.
Answer:Â (A)
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14. Which of the following prevalence criteria are used to determine the problem of xerophthalmia in children aged 6 months to 6 years:
I. Night blindness more than 1%
II. Bitots spots more than 0.05%
III. Corneal xerosis more than 0.01%
IV. Serum retinol (less than 10 mcgldl) more than 5%
(A) II, III, IV are correct.
(B) I, III, IV are correct.
(C) I, II are correct.
(D) II, III are correct.
Answer:Â (B)
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15. Which of the following are true about Anopheles mosquitoes?
I. Eggs boat shaped and pointed with parallel floats.
II. Larvae rest parallel to water surface
III. Larvae have siphon tubes.
IV. Wings of adult are spotted
(A) I, III are correct.
(B) II, III are correct.
(C) II, III, IV are correct.
(D) I, II, IV are correct.
Answer:Â (D)
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16. Which of the following are means of primary prevention of Hypertension?
I. Dietary changes
II. Cessation of smoking
III. Early diagnosis
IV. Regular physical exercise
(A) I, II, IV
(B) I, III, IV
(C) II, III
(D) III, IV
Answer:Â (A)
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17. Which of the following statements are correct about assessment of growth and development in children?
I. Mean rather than median is used because of a skewed distribution of most of the anthropometric measurements.
II. A variation of 25 D from either side of the mean is considered as normal.
III. Normal children fall between 3rd and 97th percentile.
IV. Percentiles refer to the percentage of individuals falling above a particular level.
(A) II and III are correct.
(B) I and II are correct.
(C) II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and III are correct.
Answer:Â (A)
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18. Which of the following statements are correct about epidemiological assessment iodine deficiency?
I. Urinary iodine excretion is recommended.
II. Neonatal hypothyroidism has been found to be a sensitive indicator for environmental iodine deficiency.
III. Serum T3Â level is a more sensitive indicator of thyroid insufficiency than T4.
IV. Prevalence of cretinism is a recommended indicator.
(A) I and III are correct.
(B) III and IV are correct.
(C) I, II and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and III are correct.
Answer:Â (C)
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19. Which of the following organs are affected among cancers attributed to occupational exposure?
I. Lung
II. Breast
III. Bladder
IV. Liver
(A) II, III & IV are correct.
(B) I, III & IV are correct.
(C) I & II are correct.
(D) II & IV are correct.
Answer:Â (B)
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20. Which of the following methods are accepted methods of randomisation?
I. Lottery method
II. Table of Random Numbers
III. Computer program for randomisation
IV. Odd-even day randomisation
(A) I, II & III are correct.
(B) II, III & IV are correct.
(C) III & IV are correct.
(D) II & IV are correct.
Answer:Â (A)
Given below (21 to 30) consists of 2 paired statements, statement A (Assertion) and statement R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follow:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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21. Assertion (A): The W.H.O. expanded programme on immunization recommends measles vaccination at 9 months of age.
Reason (R): Measles tends to be very severe in malnourished children.
Answer:Â (B)
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22. Assertion (A): Sickness benefit under the E.S.I. Act consists of periodical cash payment to an insured person in case of sickness, if his sickness is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Practitioner.
Reason (R): Sickness benefit is payable for a maximum period of 180 days in any continuous period of 365 days.
Answer:Â (C)
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23. Assertion (A): Information from persons testing positive for HIV at the (ICTCs) Integrated Counselling and Testing Centres across the country during 2011-12 shows that 88.2% of HIV infections are transmitted through heterosexual route of transmission.
Reason (R): Sexual mode of transmission is the most efficient mode of HIV transmission.
Answer:Â (C)
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24. Assertion (A): Frank cases of beriberi were commonly seen in coastal districts of Andhra
Pradesh where people eat highly polished rice.
Reason (R): Thiamine is readily cost from rice during the process of milling. Further losses take place during washing and cooking.
Answer:Â (A)
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25. Assertion (A): Mild and Moderate cases of Protein Energy Malnutrition constitute 20% of malnutrition cases in India.
Reason (R): Maintaining growth chart is the most practical method to detect Protein Energy Malnutrition (P.E.M.) early.
Answer:Â (D)
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26. Assertion (A): Objectives and targets are not synonymous.
Reason (R): Objectives are concerned with the problem itself whereas targets refer to degree of achievement of a discrete activity.
Answer:Â (A)
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27. Assertion (A): Integrated Rural Development Program (I.R.D.P.) is aimed at attacking poverty and improve the quality of life of rural people.
Reason (R): Cash incentives are given to all people below poverty line.
Answer:Â (C)
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28. Assertion (A): Panchayat Raj Institution is a rural local self government in India.
Reason (R): MPs and M.L.A.s in the district are members of Zilla parishad.
Answer:Â (B)
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29. Assertion (A): All the waste produced by the Health Care Institutions is infectious.
Reason (R): The waste produced in the course of health care activities carries the risk of infection and injury to the biomedical waste handlers.
Answer:Â (D)
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30. Assertion (A): Quarantine which can once a popular method of disease control has now become outdated.
Reason (R): Quarantine measures are not applied to ship or aircraft also.
Answer:Â (C)
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31. Arrange the following diseases in the chronological order of the year of their elimination / eradication in India:
(A) Yaws, Smallpox, Dracunculiasis, Poliomyelitis
(B) Smallpox, Dracunculiasis, Yaws, Poliomyelitis
(C) Smallpox, Yaws, Dracunculiasis, Poliomyelitis
(D) Dracunculiasis, Smallpox, Yaws, Poliomyelitis
Answer:Â (B)
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32. Arrange the following vaccines in descending order of their protective efficiency:
(A) Tetanus, Pertussis, BCG, Diphtheria
(B) Pertussis, Diphtheria, BCG, Tetanus
(C) Tetanus, BCG, Diphtheria, Pertussis
(D) Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis, BCG
Answer:Â (D)
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33. Arrange the following states in ascending order of their female literacy levels as per 2011 census:
(A) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Himachal Pradesh, Kerala
(B) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Kerala
(C) Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Kerala
(D) Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Kerala
Answer:Â (A)
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34. Identify the correct ascending order of the following countries according to their Maternal Mortality Rate / 1,00,000 population as reported in the year 2010 :
(A) Sri Lanka, Singapore, Pakistan, India
(B) Singapore, Sri Lanka, India, Pakistan
(C) Sri Lanka, Singapore, India, Pakistan
(D) Singapore, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, India
Answer:Â (B)
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35. Identify the correct chronological order of the following disease causing agents according to their discover:
(A) Hepatitis C Virus, Rotavirus, Corona Virus (SARs), Helicobacter Pylori
(B) Helicobacter Pylori, Rotavirus, Corona Virus (SARs), Hepatitis C Virus
(C) Rotavirus, Helicobacter Pylori, Hepatitis C Virus, Corona Virus (SARs)
(D) Rotavirus, Hepatitis C Virus, Corona Virus (SARs), Helicobacter Pylori
Answer:Â (C)
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36. Arrange the topics mentioned below related to the themes of World Health Day in chronological order:
(A) Urbanization and Health, Antimicrobial resistance, Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure.
(B) Urbanization and Health, Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure, Antimicrobial resistance
(C) Longivity and quality of life, Healthy blood pressure, Antimicrobial resistance, Urbanization and Health
(D) Healthy blood pressure, Urbanization and Health, Longivity and quality of life, Antimicrobial resistance
Answer:Â (A)
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37. Arrange the following ionizing radiations in descending order of their penetrating power in tissues:
(A) Gamma rays, Alpha particles, Beta particles, X-rays
(B) Beta particles, X-rays, Alpha particles, Gamma rays
(C) X-rays, Gamma rays, Alpha particles, Beta particles
(D) Gamma rays, X-rays, Beta particles, Alpha particles.
Answer:Â (D)
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38. Arrange the following interventions and strategies of malaria control in India, in ascending order of the year of their implementation:
(A) Indoor residual spraying, Prereferral treatment with recommended medicines, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(B) Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Pre-referral treatment with recommended medicines, indoor residual spraying, rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(C) Indoor residual spraying, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost, Prereferral treatment with recommended medicines, rapid diagnostic tests used at community level
(D) Indoor residual spraying, Rapid diagnostic tests used at community level, Pre-referral treatment with recommended medicines, Insecticide treated nets distributed free of cost
Answer:Â (A)
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39. Arrange the following milks from various sources in descending order of their energy (Kcal) content:
(A) Goat, cow, human, buffalo
(B) Buffalo, goat, cow, human
(C) Human, goat, buffalo, cow
(D) Buffalo, cow, goat, human
Answer:Â (B)
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40. Arrange the following modes of transmission of HIV/AIDS in ascending order of their efficiency of transmission:
(A) Intravenous drug use, Mother to child transmission, Sexual transmission, Blood transfusion
(B) Mother to child transmission, Intravenous drug use, Sexual transmission, Blood transfusion
(C) Sexual transmission, Mother to child transmission, Intravenous drug use, Blood transfusion.
(D) Sexual transmission, Intravenous drug use, Mother to child transmission, Blood transfusion
Answer:Â (C)
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Questions 41 to 50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in the List – II:
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41. List – I (Agency)                                                             List – II (Assistance in India)
a. Rockefeller foundation                                                      i. Designing and construction of hand flushed sanitary latrines.
b. SIDA Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â ii. Supporting the National Blindness Control Programme
c. DANIDA Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â iii. Supporting the National Tuberculosis Control Programme
d. Ford Foundation                                                                iv. Setting up the field demonstration area with AIIMS
Codes:
      a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) i iv ii iii
Answer:Â (A)
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42. List – I (Pneumo-Coniosis)                                              List – II (Dust)
a. Farmer’s Lung                                                                   i. Coal
b. Bagassosis                                                                          ii. Grain
c. Byssinosis                                                                           iii. Cotton
d. Anthracosis                                                                        iv. Sugar cane
Codes:
      a b c d
(A) ii iii i iv
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) i iii ii iv
Answer:Â (B)
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43. List – I (Type of Food Poisoning)                       List – II (Symptoms)
a. Salmonella                                                  i. Sudden onset with vomiting and abdominal cramps
b. Staphylococcal                                           ii. Diarrhoea, abdominal pain, no fever and little vomiting
c. Botulism                                                     iii. Sudden on set with chills, fever, nausea and vomiting
d. Bacillus cereus                                           iv. Dysphagia, diplopia, ptosis and blurring of vision
Codes:
       a b c d
(A) iii ii iv i
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) i iii iv ii
Answer:Â (C)
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44. List – I (Committee)                                            List – II (Purpose)
a. Modhok                                                                  i. Basic health workers’ norms
b. Chadha                                                                   ii. Minimum additional staff for PHCs
c. Mukherjee                                                              iii. Multipurpose Health Workers
d. Kartar Singh                                                          iv. Malaria Eradication Programme
Codes:
      a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) ii iii i ii
Answer:Â (C)
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45. List – I (Health Related Millennium Development Goal Number)         List – II (Goal)
a. Goal 1 Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â i. Combat HIV/AIDS Malaria
b. Goal 5 Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â ii. Ensure environmental sustainability
c. Goal 6 Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â iii. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
d. Goal 7 Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â iv. Improve Maternal Health
Codes:
       a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) ii iii iv i
Answer:Â (A)
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46. List – I (Mendelian Diseases)                                          List – II (Mode of inheritance)
a. Achondroplasia                                                                  i. Sex linked recessive
b. Albinism                                                                             ii. Autosomal recessive
c. G6 PD Deficiency                                                              iii. Sex linked dominant
d. Vit. D resistant Rickets                                                     iv. Autosomal dominant
Codes:
      a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Answer:Â (D)
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47. List – I (Measures of a screening test)                 List – II (Quality)
a. Sensitivity                                                              i. Diagnosis of previously undiagnosed disease
b. Specificity                                                              ii. Diagnostic power of the test
c. Predictive accuracy                                                iii. Ability to detect true negatives
d. Yield                                                                      iv. Ability to detect true positives
Codes:
      a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii iv i ii
Answer:Â (B)
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48. List – I (Instruments)                                           List – II (Measures)
a. Sling Psychrometer                                                i. Radiant temperature
b. Kata thermometer                                                  ii. Air velocity
c. Globe Thermometer                                               iii. Humidity
d. Anemometer                                                          iv. Cooling power
Codes:
      a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii iv i ii
Answer:Â (D)
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49. List – I (Type of Communication)                                               List – II (Method)
a. Didactic                                                                                          i. Internet
b. Socratic                                                                                          ii. Body language
c. Non-verbal                                                                                     iii. One way
d. Telecommunication                                                                        iv. Two way
Codes:
       a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) iii iv i ii
Answer:Â (A)
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50. List – I (Food Stuff)                                            List – II (Rich Source)
a. Ground nut                                                             i. Vit C
b. Ragi                                                                        ii. Iron
c. Indian Gooseberry                                                 iii. Calcium
d. Garden cress seeds                                                iv. Niacin
Codes:
       a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) ii iii i iv
Answer:Â (B)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Previous Year Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
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| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2020 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 July |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
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UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
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| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2004 December |
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