NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.
You must have NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Solved Question Papers along with the latest Social Medicine and Community Health Syllabus to enhance your semester exam preparation.
Here we have provided you with the complete guide on NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June.
NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June
NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Social Medicine and Community Health exam.
Practicing these NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health paper 3 Previous Year Question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June.
1. All diseases are included in internationally notifiable diseases except
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Cholera
(C) Plague
(D) Yellow fever
Answer: (A)
2. First country to socialize medicine completely rows
(A) Hungary
(B) Britain
(C) Russia
(D) Germany
Answer: (C)
3. Efficiency of measles vaccine is
(A) 55%
(B) 75%
(C) 85%
(D) 95%
Answer: (D)
4. Restoration function is
(A) Medical rehabilitation
(B) Vocational Rehabilitation
(C) Social rehabilitation
(D) Psychological rehabilitation
Answer: (A)
5. Sex ratio is defined as
(A) Number of males per 1000 females
(B) Number of females per 1000 males
(C) Number of females per 100 males
(D) Number of males per 100 females
Answer: (B)
6. Antiserum are prepared from
(A) Guinea pig
(B) Rabbit
(C) Rat
(D) Horse
Answer: (D)
7. Incidence in exposed is = 10, Incidence in non-exposed is = 5. Relative risk is
(A) 50
(B) 0.5
(C) 5
(D) 2
Answer: (D)
8. Epidemiological triad contains all except
(A) Agent
(B) Environment
(C) Host
(D) Man power
Answer: (D)
9. Sentinel Surveillance is done for identifying.
(A) Missed cases
(B) Subclinical cases
(C) Index cases
(D) Prodromal infection cases
Answer: (A)
10. Disease rate is
(A) Risk of susceptibility
(B) Usually expressed as percentage
(C) Time period in calendar year
(D) Disease occurrence in a specified time period
Answer: (D)
11. Herd immunity is important in all except
(A) Polio
(B) Measles
(C) Tetanus
(D) Diphtheria
Answer: (C)
12. All prevents maternal fetal transmission of HIV except
(A) Lamuvidine
(B) Amantadine
(C) Zidovidine
(D) Zalicitabane
Answer: (B)
13. Which of the following is not a killed vaccine?
(A) DPT
(B) OPV
(C) Hepatitis B
(D) Rabies
Answer: (B)
14. A freshly prepared oral dehydration solution should not be used after
(A) 8 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) 36 hours
Answer: (C)
15. Milk transmits all except
(A) Endemic typhus
(B) Q fever
(C) Typhoid fever
(D) Brucellosis
Answer: (A)
16. In India “Rabies free’ zone is
(A) Goa
(B) Sikkim
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Nagaland
Answer: (C)
17. Which is most dangerous for transmitting plague?
(A) Blocked flea
(B) Partial block flea
(C) Unblocked flea
(D) Dead flea
Answer: (A)
18. “Strawberry tongue” followed by “raspberry tongue” is characteristic of
(A) Mumps
(B) Measles
(C) Chickenpox
(D) Scarlet fever
Answer: (D)
19. The last case of smallpox is reported in the world
(A) 1977
(B) 1978
(C) 1879
(D) 1982
Answer: (B)
20. Which of the following statements is true about a ‘confounding factor’?
(A) It is associated with both exposure and disease.
(B) It is distributed equally in both study and control groups.
(C) It is not a risk factor for the disease.
(D) It is present only in the control group and not study group.
Answer: (A)
21. Which of the following is the most powerful disinfectants?
(A) Phenol
(B) Lysol
(C) Dettol
(D) Potassium permanganate
Answer: (B)
22. Quarantine is
(A) Infected period
(B) Generation time
(C) Shortest incubation period
(D) Longest incubation period
Answer: (D)
23. Sensitivity is the ability of a test to correctly identify all
(A) True negatives
(B) True positives
(C) False negatives
(D) False positives
Answer: (B)
24. Carrier state is seen in all except?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Measles
(C) Typhoid
(D) Polio
Answer: (B)
25. Rabies does not occur with bite of
(A) Dog
(B) Mouse
(C) Horse
(D) Cat
Answer: (B)
26. Polio is due to
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Protozoa
(D) Fungus
Answer: (A)
27. Minimum gap that should be allowed in between two administered live vaccines
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 2 months
(D) 4 months
Answer: (B)
28. Medical method of abortion in India is recommended in a facility with provision for safe abortion services and blood transfusion up t:
(A) 6 weeks of Amenorrhoea
(B) 7 weeks of Amenorrhoea
(C) 8 weeks of Amenorrhoea
(D) 12 weeks of Amenorrhoea
Answer: (B)
29. Gadchiroli model is approved as the bases for provision of
(A) Home based care for diarrhoea
(B) Home based safe delivery
(C) Health education of mothers
(D) Home based neonatal care
Answer: (D)
30. The most important essential fatty acid is
(A) Linoleic acid
(B) Linolenic acid
(C) Arachidonic acid
(D) Oleic acid
Answer: (A)
31. ICMR’s recommendation of 1.0 gm protein / kg. body weight assumes a Net Protein Utilization (NPU) of
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 100
(D) 50
Answer: (B)
32. The overall rate of turnover of proteins in adult man is equivalent to replacement between
(A) 1-2% of body protein each day
(B) 2-3% of body protein each day
(C) 3-4% of body protein each day
(D) 5% of body protein each day
Answer: (A)
33. To promote institutional deliveries RCH II program envisages operationalization for 24 hrs. by 2010 of which one of the following:
(A) All PHCs and CHCs
(B) 50% PHCs and all CHCs
(C) 50% PHCs and 50% CHCs
(D) All PHCs and 50% CHCs
Answer: (B)
34. Which one of the following statements in not true about child- woman ratio?
(A) It is the number of children 0-5 yrs. per 1000 women of child bearing age.
(B) It is derived from census data.
(C) It is used where birth registration statistics do not exist or are in adequate.
(D) It is the number of children 0-4 yrs. per 1000 women of child bearing age
Answer: (D)
35. Small for Date Babies weight less than
(A) 10th percentile for gestational age
(B) 20th percentile for gestational age
(C) 30th percentile for gestational age
(D) 25th percentile for gestational age
Answer: (A)
36. As compared to routine case control studies nested case control study avoids problems in study design related to:
(A) Temporal association
(B) Confounding bias
(C) Need for long follow up
(D) Randomization
Answer: (A)
37. The colour of the container for disposal of human anatomical wastes according to biomedical waste management recommendation is
(A) Red
(B) Black
(C) Yellow
(D) Green
Answer: (C)
38. First case of an epidemic is referred as
(A) Index case
(B) Primary case
(C) Suspicious case
(D) Prime case
Answer: (B)
39. Disease imported to a country not otherwise present
(A) Exotic
(B) Enzootic
(C) Epizootic
(D) Eudemic
Answer: (A)
40. Type of the biological transmission malarial parasite is:
(A) Cyclodevelopmental
(B) Developmental
(C) Propagative
(D) Cyclopropagative
Answer: (D)
41. Pneumoconiosis is causes by dust within the size range of
(A) 0.1 to 0.5 microns
(B) 0.1 to 1 micron
(C) 0.5 to 0.8 microns
(D) 0.5 to 3 microns
Answer: (D)
42. BCG vaccine is kept in refrigeration in
(A) Chilled Tray
(B) Freezer
(C) Tray below the freezer
(D) Shelves in the door
Answer: (B)
43. Inhalation of cotton fibre dust over long periods of time causes
(A) Bagassosis
(B) Byssinosis
(C) Farmer’s lung
(D) Anthracosis
Answer: (B)
44. Chadler’s index is used for measuring worm load of
(A) Ancylostomaduodenale
(B) Ascarislumbricoides
(C) Strongyloides
(D) Trichuristrichura
Answer: (A)
45. Which of the following diseases has not been eradicated?
(A) Smallpox
(B) Guinea worm
(C) Polio
(D) Yaws
Answer: (C)
46. Population count is taken on
(A) 1st January
(B) 1st March
(C) 1st July
(D) 1st August
Answer: (C)
47. Crude Birth Rate denominator is
(A) Total no. of live births in that year
(B) 1000 live births
(C) Total no. of births
(D) Mid-year population
Answer: (D)
48. WHO South-East Region covers all except
(A) Indonesia
(B) Myanmar
(C) Thailand
(D) Afghanistan
Answer: (D)
49. The test to detect contamination of mustard oil with Argemone oil is
(A) Nitric Acid test
(B) Sulphuric Acid test
(C) Chromic Acid test
(D) Hydrochloric Acid test
Answer: (A)
50. Pulses are deficient in
(A) Methionine
(B) Lysine
(C) Leucine
(D) Tryptophan
Answer: (A)
51. The value of residual chlorine should be
(A) 0.1 mg/litre
(B) 0.01 mg/litre
(C) 0.5 mg/litre
(D) 1.0 mg/litre
Answer: (C)
52. Water fluoride is removed by
(A) Boiling
(B) Nalgonda Technique
(C) Patna Technique
(D) Filtration
Answer: (B)
53. The size of sand in Rapid sand Filter is
(A) 0.62 – 2.0 mm
(B) 2.5 – 3.0 mm
(C) 0.4 – 0.7 mm
(D) 0.5 – 0.8 mm
Answer: (C)
54. ‘Nuisance mosquito’ refers to
(A) Anopheles
(B) Culex
(C) Aedes
(D) Mansonia
Answer: (B)
55. DDT acts by
(A) Contact poison
(B) Repellent
(C) Stomach poison
(D) Respiratory poison
Answer: (A)
56. ‘Ergonomics’ is
(A) Human engineering
(B) Genetic manipulation
(C) Occupational alteration
(D) Social engineering
Answer: (C)
57. The national cancer Registry program of the ICMR provides data on incidence of cancer in India from
(A) Six population based registries.
(B) Five population based registries.
(C) Seven population based registries.
(D) One population based registry.
Answer: (A)
58. The most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a community is
(A) Spleen rate
(B) Infant parasite rate
(C) Annual Parasite incidences
(D) Slide positivity rate
Answer: (B)
59. Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structures or function is termed
(A) Impairment
(B) Disability
(C) Handicap
(D) Disease
Answer: (A)
60. Which of the following study designs can be used to calculate the incidence directly?
(A) Cross sectional
(B) Case control
(C) Retrospective
(D) Prospective
Answer: (D)
61. Which of the following is not true about Annual Infection Rate of tuberculosis?
(A) 1% increase in AIR is equivalent to 50 new cases of Sputum positive TB.
(B) It is one of the best indicator for evaluating tuberculosis and its trend.
(C) It expresses attacking force of tuberculosis in community.
(D) It is 2% in India.
Answer: (A)
62. The first evidence of infection in Hepatitis B is
(A) Anti HBs
(B) HBe Ag
(C) HBs Ag
(D) Anti HBc
Answer: (C)
63. Screening test is not useful when
(A) Condition support is an important health problem i.e. prevalence is high
(B) There is a test that can defect the disease prior to onset of signs and symptoms.
(C) Condition sought is not an important health problem i.e. prevalence is low.
(D) There is an effective treatment
Answer: (C)
64. Transovarian transmission occurs in
(A) Malaria
(B) Plague
(C) Filariasis
(D) Dengue feve
Answer: (D)
65. Standard deviation is a measure of
(A) Chance
(B) Deviation from mean valve
(C) Central tendency
(D) Deviation from median value
Answer: (B)
66. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates of two countries. This is done because of the difference in
(A) Cause of Death
(B) Age Distributions
(C) Socio Economic Conditions
(D) Health Service Differentials
Answer: (B)
67. Human Development index includes all except
(A) Adult Literacy Rate
(B) Infant Mortality Rate
(C) Life Expectancy at Birth
(D) Combined Gross Enrolment Ratio
Answer: (B)
68. First Referral Level in health system denotes.
(A) Primary health care
(B) Secondary health care
(C) Tertiary health care
(D) Super specialist health care
Answer: (B)
69. Identification of missed cases and supplementing the notified cases is done by
(A) Sentinel surveillance
(B) Screening
(C) Monitoring
(D) Epidemiological surveillance
Answer: (A)
70. All the following dimensions are rates except one. Mark the one which is not a rate.
(A) Crude Death Rate
(B) Proportional Mortality Rate
(C) Infant Mortality Rate
(D) Survival Rate
Answer: (B)
71. All are characteristics of common source single exposure epidemic curve except
(A) Curve rises and falls rapidly
(B) Clustering of cases in narrow interval
(C) Secondary waves
(D) Single peak
Answer: (C)
72. Case control study measures all except
(A) Odds Ratio
(B) Relative Risk
(C) Exposure Rate
(D) Incident Rates
Answer: (D)
73. Which is an antiseptic having sporocidal action?
(A) Cataclon
(B) Halogens
(C) Chlorohexidine
(D) 70% alcohol
Answer: (B)
74. The time between first possible point of diagnosis and the final critical diagnosis is called
(A) Screening time
(B) Generation time
(C) Lead time
(D) Serial interval
Answer: (C)
75. In a highly prevalent disease, if the cutoff point is lowered
(A) Sensitivity will increase
(B) Sensitivity will decrease
(C) Specificity will increase
(D) Specificity will decrease
Answer: (A)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Social Medicine And Community Health Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Social Medicine and Community Health was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
We have covered the NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June.
If you have any questions about NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Papers, please let us know in the comment section.