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NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June
NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Social Medicine and Community Health exam.
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1. Which of the following is a vaccine preventable disease?
(A) Malaria
(B) HIV/AIDS
(C) Poliomyelitis
(D) Dengue fever
Answers: (C)
2. Sex ratio in the Indian context is expressed as
(A) Number of males per 1000 females.
(B) Number of females per 1000 males.
(C) Number of males per 100 females.
(D) Number of females per 100 males.
Answers: (B)
3. Use of Oral Rehydration solution in place of Intravenous fluids for treating mild dehydration is an example of
(A) Equitable distribution
(B) Inter-sectoral co-ordination
(C) Appropriate technology
(D) Community participation
Answers: (C)
4. Orthotoluidine test determines
(A) Free chlorine
(B) Residual chlorine
(C) Combined chlorine
(D) Both free and combined chlorine
Answers: (D)
5. Sentinal surveillance is done for identifying
(A) Missed cases
(B) Index case
(C) Sub-clinical cases
(D) Carriers
Answers: (A)
6. Anti-tetanus serum is prepared from
(A) Rat
(B) Rabbit
(C) Guinea pig
(D) Horse
Answers: (D)
7. Sensitivity of a screening test is theability to correctly identify
(A) True positives
(B) True negatives
(C) False positives
(D) False negatives
Answers: (A)
8. Minimum interval between two doses of Vaccines should be
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
Answers: (B)
9.AedesAegypti is a vector that transmits
(A) Malaria
(B) Filaria
(C) Dengue fever
(D) Diarrhoeal Diseases
Answers: (C)
10. Which of the following countries comes under W.H.O. South East Asia Region?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Egypt
Answers: (C)
11. Ergonomics refers to
(A) Social Engineering
(B) Genetic Engineering
(C) Human Engineering
(D) Occupational Alterations
Answers: (C)
12. Cereals are deficient in which amino acid?
(A) Lysine
(B) Methionine
(C) Leucine
(D) Tryptophans
Answers: (A)
13. Which of the following is the most important cause of Infant Mortality in India?
(A) Respiratory infections
(B) Low Birth Weight (LBW)
(C) Diarrhoeal Diseases
(D) Cord infections
Answers: (B)
14. Which of the following is the maximum intensity of sound that can be tolerated by humans on a daily basis in decibels (dB) without substantial damage to their hearing?
(A) 60 dB
(B) 85 dB
(C) 100 dB
(D) 120 dB
Answers: (B)
15. Which of the following is the goal to be achieved by 2015 as per the National Health Policy 2002?
(A) Eradicate Polio and Yaws
(B) Eliminate Leprosy
(C) Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis
(D) Achieve Zero growth of HIV/AIDS
Answers: (C)
16. The term ‘Comprehensive health care’ was used for the first time by which of the following committees?
(A) Bhore Committee
(B) Mukerji Committee
(C) Jungalwalla Committee
(D) Kartar Singh Committee
Answers: (A)
17. The Births, Deaths and Marriages Registration Act was passed by the Government of India in the year:
(A) 1872
(B) 1975
(C) 1873
(D) 1985
Answers: (C)
18. Which of the following areas in India is ‘Rabies Free’?
(A) Goa
(B) Nagland
(C) Sikkim
(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answers: (D)
19. In which one of the following cities was the First International Sanitary Conference held in the year 1851?
(A) Geneva
(B) Paris
(C) Copenhagen
(D) London
Answers: (B)
20. Which one of the following indices is regarded as the most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a locality?
(A) Parasite Rate
(B) Spleen Rate
(C) Infant Parasite Rate
(D) Average Enlarged spleen
Answers: (C)
21. The impact indicator for monitoring ASHA’s work set up by the Government of India is
(A) Percentage of children with diarrhoea receiving ORS.
(B) Percentage of institutional deliveries.
(C) Percentage of ASHA’s attending review meetings.
(D) Child Malnutrition rates.
Answers: (D)
22. Which of the following of the millennium Development Goals is to ‘Develop a global partnership for development’?
(A) Goal 5
(B) Goal 4
(C) Goal 8
(D) Goal 1
Answers: (C)
23. The target age group for measles catch up campaign is
(A) 9 months to 5 years
(B) 9 months to 6 years
(C) 9 months to 10 years
(D) 9 months to 14 years
Answers: (C)
24. In the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program a Designated Microscopy centre is established for:
(A) 1 Lakh in plains and 10,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(B) 1 Lakh in plains and 50,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(C) 50,000 in plains and 10,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
(D) 50,000 in plains and 20,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.
Answers: (B)
25. Under the ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ which of the following is the amount of cash assistance given to mother’s delivering in a health institution/ health centre, in a low performing state?
(A) Rs. 700
(B) Rs. 600
(C) Rs. 1,400
(D) Rs. 900
Answers: (C)
26. What is the recommended management of a child who is found allergic to DPT?
(A) Give DTaP/DT instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(B) Give DT only instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(C) Give TT only instead of remaining doses of DPT.
(D) Give DPT after two weeks and continue with remaining doses.
Answers: (A)
27. Which one of the following conditions is under Regular Surveillance under Integrated Disease Surveillance programme?
(A) Leprosy
(B) Road Traffic Accidents
(C) Anthrax
(D) Rabies
Answers: (B)
28. Which of the following is the value fixed for minimum level of iodine in salt at consumer level under Prevention of Food Adulteration Act.?
(A) 30 PPM
(B) 100 PPM
(C) 20 PPM
(D) 15 PPM
Answers: (D)
29. At what level of Net Reproduction Rate is the reproductive performance of the population below replacement level?
(A) 1
(B) Less than 1
(C) More than 1
(D) 1.5
Answers: (B)
30. The term family size in demography refers to
(A) Total number of persons in a family.
(B) Total number of daughters a woman has borne at a point in time.
(C) Total number of children a woman has borne at a point in time.
(D) Total number of children a woman has borne between the ages of 15-45 years.
Answers: (C)
31. Which infectious disease has longest incubation period?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Plague
(C) Malaria
(D) Leprosy
Answers: (D)
32. Which infectious disease has no carrier state?
(A) Typhoid
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Gonorrhoea
Answers: (C)
33. How many K cal/day are required by sedentary adult women?
(A) 1500
(B) 1775
(C) 1875
(D) 2100
Answers: (C)
34. What is the amount of saturated fatty acids in Ghee (gm/100 gm)?
(A) 60
(B) 65
(C) 70
(D) 75
Answers: (B)
35. One tablespoon contents is equal to
(A) 1 ml
(B) 5 ml
(C) 10 ml
(D) 15 ml
Answers: (D)
36. The Dose of BCG vaccine for new born child is
(A) 0.01 ml
(B) 0.02 ml
(C) 0.05 ml
(D) 0.1 ml
Answers: (C)
37. Antirabic treatment is not indicated for
(A) Wild Animal bite
(B) Cow bite
(C) Dog bite
(D) Rat bite
Answers: (D)
38. IQ range for normal person is (By Binet& Simon test)
(A) 50 to 69
(B) 70 to 79
(C) 80 to 89
(D) Above 89
Answers: (D)
39. The oldest public health law is
(A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
(B) ESIS Act
(C) The Epidemic Diseases Act
(D) The Factories Act
Answers: (C)
40. In a large scale purification of water the optimum storage of river water should be
(A) upto 2 days
(B) 2 to 10 days
(C) 10 to 14 days
(D) 15 to 20 days
Answers: (C)
41. Recommended illumination in Lux for casual reading is
(A) 100
(B) 150
(C) 200
(D) 250
Answers: (A)
42. Sound level for jet take off in dB is
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200
Answers: (C)
43. The concentration of DDT dust for control of fleas required is
(A) 10 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 30 %
Answers: (A)
44. Which of the following is not included as vital event?
(A) Death
(B) Fetal death
(C) Injury
(D) Divorce
Answers: (C)
45. The Alma Ata Declaration was made in
(A) 1948
(B) 1978
(C) 1988
(D) 2008
Answers: (B)
46. Hardy Weinberg Law relates to
(A) Population genetics
(B) Demography
(C) Social structure
(D) Incidence and prevalence of disease
Answers: (A)
47. Which of the following has a protective effect on coronary heart disease?
(A) Low Density Lipoproteins (LDL)
(B) Very Low Density Lipoproteins (VLDL)
(C) High Density Lipoproteins (HDL)
(D) Very High Density Lipoproteins (VHDL)
Answers: (C)
48. The scatter diagrammes represent
(A) Constants
(B) Characteristics
(C) Regressions
(D) Correlations
Answers: (A)
49. Random allocation of subjects to study and control groups is undertaken in
(A) Cross sectional study
(B) Case control study
(C) Cohort study
(D) Clinical trial
Answers: (D)
50. Auto infection is possible in
(A) Echinococcosis
(B) Enterobiasis
(C) Dracunculosis
(D) Filariasis
Answers: (B)
51. Mean root squared deviation is
(A) Variance
(B) Mean deviation
(C) Standard deviation
(D) Co-efficient of variation
Answers: (C)
52. The theme of WHO day during 2013 was related to
(A) Environment
(B) Blood Pressure
(C) Diabetes
(D) Coronary Heart Disease(CHD)
Answers: (B)
53. Protection offered by ‘Herd Immunity’ in the community is due to
(A) Immune people acting as barrier.
(B) Environmental sharing.
(C) Passive transfer of disease agent.
(D) Common social practices.
Answers: (A)
54. Time period between detection by screening test and standard diagnostic test is known as
(A) Lag time
(B) Generation time
(C) Latent period
(D) Lead time
Answers: (D)
55. Incidence can be found out by conducting
(A) Case control study
(B) Cross sectional study
(C) Ecological study
(D) Cohort study
Answers: (D)
56. Secondary attack rate is a measure of
(A) Communicability
(B) Sub clinical cases
(C) Exposure to carriers
(D) Immunization coverage in the population
Answers: (A)
57. Confounding factor is associated to
(A) Both exposure and disease
(B) Disease only
(C) Exposure only
(D) Neither disease nor exposure
Answers: (A)
58. Severity of acute diseases can be best measured by
(A) Age specific death rate.
(B) Cause specific death rate.
(C) Proportional mortality rate.
(D) Case fatality rate.
Answers: (D)
59. For calculation of positive predictive value the denominator is
(A) True positives + false negatives
(B) False positives + True negatives
(C) True positives + false positives
(D) True positives + True negatives
Answers: (C)
60. In right sided skewed distribution the median is
(A) Smaller than the mean
(B) Larger than the mean
(C) Equal to the mean
(D) At any position in relation to the mean
Answers: (A)
61. During 2003-04 long distance migration across countries contributed to the speed of
(A) AIDS
(B) SARS
(C) Chikangunia
(D) Dengue
Answers: (B)
62. ‘Bills of Mortality’ laid the foundation of systematic registration and use of death records. Who among the following is associated with it?
(A) John Stuart Mill
(B) Edwin Chadwick
(C) Robert Malthus
(D) Talcott Parsons
Answers: (A)
63. Which of the following will be an appropriate sampling technique for studying nutritional disparity among lactating women in the catchment area of a Primary Health Centre?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Random Sampling
(C) Systematic Random Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answers: (B)
64. Recently the advertisement for a contraceptive was removed from being aired in the media. Name the contraceptive
(A) NET-EN
(B) Cyclofem
(C) i-pill
(D) DEPO-PROVERA
Answers: (C)
65. Which of the following are not associated with Public Health?
(A) John Snow
(B) Edwin Chadwin
(C) Eric Ross
(D) P.B. Shelley
Answers: (D)
66. ‘Nirmal Gram Puraskar’ is given to a village which is
(A) Providing safe drinking water to all.
(B) Open defaecation free.
(C) Well connected with the nearest town.
(D) Providing education all children below 12 years free of cost.
Answers: (B)
67. The Report of the Macroeconomic Commission on Health is the best recognised as
(A) WHO Bulletin of Health
(B) Social Determinants of Health
(C) Annual Health Survey
(D) UN Report on Health
Answers: (B)
68. The nodal agency for the conduct and monitoring of National Family Health Surveys in India is
(A) International Institute for Population Services, Mumbai.
(B) National Institute of Medical Statistics, New Delhi.
(C) Institute for Research in Reproduction, Mumbai.
(D) Public Health Foundation of India.
Answers: (A)
69. Sex ratio at birth is affected by
(A) Crude birth rate
(B) Pre-natal diagnostic test
(C) Total fertility rate
(D) Maternal health
Answers: (D)
70. ‘World Health Day’ is observed on which of the following days?
(A) 01 January
(B) 07 April
(C) 05 June
(D) 02 October
Answers: (B)
71. The normative population size for a sub centre in the plain region is
(A) 1,000 persons
(B) 5,000 persons
(C) 3,000 persons
(D) 2,000 persons
Answers: (B)
72. Population dynamics is constituted by fertility, mortality and
(A) Urbanisation
(B) Migration
(C) Industrialisation
(D) Globalisation
Answers: (B)
73. Among the following countries, which has the lowest maternal mortality?
(A) Norway
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) China
Answers: (Wrong question)
74. ‘Health and Development Committee’ is better known as
(A) Srivastava Committee
(B) Barve Committee
(C) Mudaliar Committee
(D) Bhore Committee
Answers: (D)
75. Which of the Indian cities from among the following was adjudged the cleanest in India after being hit by an epidemic during 1994?
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Surat
(D) Indore
Answers: (C)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Social Medicine And Community Health Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Social Medicine and Community Health was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
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