NTA UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June

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NTA UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June

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11. Match List – I with List – II:

List – I                                    List – II

(Biosphere Reserves)              (State)

I. Nokrek                                 1. Odisha

II. Dibru-Saikhowa                 2. Kerala

III. Agasthyamalai                  3. Assam

IV. Simlipal                             4. Meghalaya

Codes:

I II III IV

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

Answers: (B)

12. Cabinet of which country called under water meeting in 2009 to highlight the threat of global warming to the low lying nations on the earth

(A) Fiji

(B) The Netherlands

(C) New Zealand

(D) Maldives

Answers: (D)

13. Feedback can be used as

(A) Creating micro barrier

(B) Evaluating effectiveness of communication

(C) Carrying out instructions

(D) Analysing the decoder

Answers: (B)

14. Which of the following is not a stage of team development?

(A) Storming

(B) Alarming

(C) Forming

(D) Performing

Answers: (B)

15. Find the correct groups of statements:

I. Attitudes are largely shaped by personal beliefs and values.

II. Employee work place attitude are fairly stable overtime and slow to change.

III. Managers can correctly attribute poor employee behaviour to lack of motivation.

IV. Adult learners seek skill and knowledge that they can apply to their work or used to further their career.

Codes:

(A) All are true.

(B) I, II, III are correct.

(C) II, III, IV are correct.

(D) I, II, IV are correct.

Answers: (D)

16. Which of the following is not correctly stated?

(A) A strategy is a plan of action.

(B) A system is a linking of organisation components.

(C) A process is a flow of interrelated events towards a goal.

(D) Quality is the degree of productivity.

Answers: (D)

17. Match List – I with List – II:

List – I                                                List – II

I. Lalbagh Botanical Garden              1. Mangrove Forest

II. Sunderbans                                                2. River Island

III. Majuli                                           3. Mahabalipuram

IV. Shore Temple                                4. Bengaluru

Codes:

I II III IV

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 3 2 1 4

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 1 2 3 4

Answers: (A)

18. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Asia’s largest inland salt water lagoon– The ChilkaLake

(B) Nehru Trophy Boat Race is held at – Goa

(C) Udaipur is known as – the Paris of the East

(D) The biggest statue of Thiruvalluvar is at – Marina Beach

Answers: (A)

19. Which one of the following pairs is not correct matched?

(A) Natural Shiva Linga of Ice is formed at – Amarnath

(B) A paved pedestrian path offering stunning views of the mountains and the plains below at Kodaikanal is – Coaker’swalk

(C) The place famous for its spectacular sunrise and sunsets, especially on a full moon days is – Kanyakumari

(D) Queen of the Arabian Sea is – Goa

Answers: (D)

20. Which one of the fort made of bricks?

(A) Ranthambhore

(B) Gwalior

(C) Bikaner

(D) Daulatabad

Answers: (C)

21. Mumtaz Mahal (wife of Shah Jahan) died at

(A) Saharanpur

(B) Burhanpur

(C) Agra

(D) FatehpurSikri

Answers: (B)

22. The archaeological site – Nagarjunkonda is located on the bank of which river?

(A) Godavari

(B) Krishna

(C) Kaveri

(D) Vaigai

Answers: (B)

23. Rishi Sufi Silsilah which is known for peaceful coexistence among the different religion’s followers belongs to

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Kashmir

(C) Gujarat

(D) Karnataka

Answers: (B)

24. Match List – I with List – II:

List – I                        List – II

(Folk dance)                (States)

I. Karma                      1. Lakshadweep

II. Teratali                   2. Jharkhand

III. Grida                    3. Madhya Pradesh

IV. Lava                      4. Madhya Pradesh

Codes:

I II III IV

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 2 1 3 4

(D) 2 4 3 1

Answers: (D)

25. Imtiyaz Mahal is known as a

(A) Pavilion in Shah Jahan’s Delhi palace known as the hall of distinction, today it is popularly called the Rang Mahal.

(B) Large hall for celebrations of Muharram.

(C) Hall for celebration of Eid.

(D) School for religious institutions.

Answers: (A)

26. A documents issued by the Mughal Government to the foreign travellers for their free movement was known as

(A) Dastak

(B) Cartez

(C) Dastur-ul-amal

(D) Ain-i Sarkar

Answers: (A)

27. It is a body of water formed where fresh water from rivers and streams flows into the ocean, mixing with the seawater without making a delta

(A) Strait

(B) Estuary

(C) Prairie

(D) Atoll

Answers: (B)

28. Identify the oldest hospitality chain in India:

(A) The Oberoi Group of Hotels

(B) The Leela Palaces, Hotels and Resorts

(C) The ITC Welcome Group Hotels

(D) The Taj Hotels, Resorts and Palaces

Answers: (D)

29. KOT and BOT are

(A) food and alcoholic drinks order ticket

(B) Complimentary ticket for food and alcoholic drinks

(C) Managers entitlement ticket to dine in restaurant

(D) Food and alcoholic drink stock record

Answers: (A)

30. P-V Ratio Profit-Volume ratio is expressed in percentages and is calculated using the formula

(A) Contribution/Sales × 100

(B) Sales/Contribution × 100

(C) (Fixed cost – Variable cost)/ Sales × 100

(D) (Total cost – Fixed)/ cost Sales × 100

Answers: (A)

31. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Designer hotels based on a theme which provide luxurious personalized services and facilities to their clientele – Boutique Hotels

(B) These hotels are situated in large cities mostly have European plan i.e. only room and no meals – Transit Hotels

(C) These hotels are mainly located on the surface of the water. The facilities and services of these hotels are similar to those of a regular hotel – Residential / Apartment Hotels

(D) These hotels cater specially to the transient passengers and airline crew who are waiting for a connecting flight – Capsule Hotels

Answers: (A)

32. Which one of following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) It is a very attractive manmade resort – Disneyland

(B) It is an Indian concept where ancient Indian Maharajas converted their palaces into hotels after they were stripped of their princely privileges – Palace Hotels

(C) In this type of hotels, each room or suite is owned by several people who will schedule their visit well in advance with management office to ensure that the room or suite is available – Time share Hotels

(D) It is a type of hotel where guests are fed traditional Indian food of royalty and served by liveried waiting staff – Palace on Wheels

Answers: (D)

33. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?

(A) In this type of pricing plan, charges include room rent and all meals – Continental Plan

(B) Setting a standard with a comparable competitor is – Branding

(C) A strategy of maximizing revenue – Yield Management

(D) A room with a sofa cum bed ideally situated beside swimming pools or beaches

Answers: (C)

34. ‘Revpar’ is a term used in the hotel industry to establish

(A) The Rack Rate

(B) The Occupancy Rate

(C) The Room Rate

(D) The Revenue per Available Room

Answers: (D)

35. Which is a Greenfield airport?

(A) Devenhalli Airport, Bengaluru

(B) Indira Gandhi Airport, Delhi

(C) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Airport, Patna

(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Airport, Ahmedabad

Answers: (A)

36. In which year Air India and Indian Airlines merged as NACIL?

(A) 2006

(B) 2007

(C) 2008

(D) 2009

Answers: (B)

37. Which event is associated with Centenary year of Civil Aviation?

(A) Flight of Hery Piquet from Allahabad to Naini

(B) Maiden flight of JRD Tata from Karachi to Bombay.

(C) Direct flight from London to Bombay

(D) Flying show over Hooghly River in Calcutta

Answers: (A)

38. Calculate the flying time a flight leaves Ho Chi Minh City (+ 00700 Hrs) at 2005 Hrs and arrives Frankfurt (+0100 Hrs) at 0615 next day.

(A) 15.10 Hrs

(B) 16.10 Hrs

(C) 14.10 Hrs

(D) 17.10 Hrs

Answers: (B)

39. Free baggage allowance for economy class passengers in airlines is

(A) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 273 cms.

(B) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 158 cms.

(C) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 115 cms.

(D) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions for both bags does not exceed 315 cms.

Answers: (A)

40. Which statement is true?

(A) Immigration check is done for all passengers, Indian or foreigners at the time of arrival and departure.

(B) Immigration check is done for Indians at the time of departure.

(C) Immigration check is done for foreigners at the time of arrival.

(D) Immigration check is done randomly.

Answers: (A)

41. Assertion (A): Bermuda Agreement between UK and USA is the basis of bilateral agreements among nations in the field of civil aviation.

Reason (R): It was signed in 1945.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is true, but (R) is true.

Answers: (C)

42. Arrange the following trains in the order in which they were started:

I. The Deccan Odyssey

II. Royal Rajasthan

III. Palace on Wheels

IV. The Nilgiri Express

Codes:

(A) I, II, III and IV

(B) IV, III, II and I

(C) IV, III, I and II

(D) IV, II, III and I

Answers: (C)

43. Which of the following is the leading International healthcare accrediting agency?

(A) Trent International Accrediting Scheme

(B) Joint Commission International

(C) NABH – National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Health

(D) UKAF – United Kingdom Accreditation Forum

Answers: (B)

44. T GV is famous for

(A) Airlines

(B) Railway

(C) Cruise ship

(D) Resorts

Answers: (B)

45. Assertion (A): In India both tour operators and travel agents assemble and sell tour packages.

Reason (R): Tour operators are wholesalers and travel agents are retailers.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) Both (A) & (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (AB)

46. Which group of sequential itinerary is/are correct?

I. Orland → Dublin → Milan → Dubai

II. Tel Aviv → Islamabad → Kathmandu → Yangon

III. Boston → Madrid → Athens → Istanbul

IV. Athens → Karachi → Dhaka → Bangkok

Codes:

(A) I, III & IV are correct.

(B) II, III & IV are correct.

(C) I & II are correct.

(D) All are correct.

Answers: (D)

47. Wholesaler in the parlance of Tourism Industry is

(A) Airline

(B) Tour operator

(C) Hotel

(D) Travel Agency

Answers: (B)

48. Leaving a destination in a better condition than you found it is known as

(A) Enhansive sustainability

(B) Sustainable tourism

(C) Eco-tourism

(D) Clean-up tourism

Answers: (A)

49. What is cognitive dissonance?

(A) It is a tendency of the buyer to purchase the cheapest brand available in the market.

(B) It is the pre-purchase research activity carried out by a prospective customer.

(C) Discomfort caused by post purchase conflict.

(D) It is the set of the bargaining tools that a buyer uses to get the best deal from the seller.

Answers: (C)

50. The online selling of goods and services to final consumers is known as

(A) B2B online marketing

(B) B2C online marketing

(C) C2B online marketing

(D) C2C online marketing

Answers: (B)

51. In Tourism marketing, if supply exceeds demand

(A) There is near certainty of price-cutting by major competitors

(B) There is more likely to be a mismatch between the holding expectations and destination experiences

(C) It takes long time to expand the product service offering

(D) The service provider will charge a premium price

Answers: (A)

52. In the context of “Theme Park” Excitement will be referred to as

(A) Core product

(B) Tangible product

(C) Augmented product

(D) Facilitating product

Answers: (A)

53. When a marketer modify an exiting product for the current market, he is said to be following

(A) Market development strategy

(B) Market penetration strategy

(C) Product development strategy

(D) Diversification strategy

Answers: (C)

54. Which of the following is considered as a challenge faced by destination marketer?

(A) Limited budgets

(B) Politics

(C) External environment

(D) All of the above

Answers: (D)

55. Assertion (A): Motivation in research is desire to get a research degree along with its consequential benefits.

Reason (R): Research relies on experience or observation alone.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answers: (C)

56. Match List – I with List – II:

List – I                                                                        List – II

(Types of Hypothesis Test)                                         (Characteristics)

I. Wilcoxon matched pairs signed – Ranks test          1. A univariate hypothesis test using the standard normal distribution

II. Binomial Test                                                         2. To analyses the differences between the paired observations taking into the magnitude of the differences

III. Kolmogorov- Smirnov One Sample Test             3. A goodness-off it statistical test for dichotomous variables

IV. Z-Test                                                                   4. A goodness of fit test that compares the cumulative distribution function for a variable with specified distribution

Codes:

I II III IV

(A) 1 3 4 2

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 2 3 1 4

Answers: (B)

57. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric?

(A) ‘t’-Test

(B) Mann-Whitney ‘U’ Test

(C) Chi-square Test

(D) K-S Two Sample Test

Answers: (A)

58. Match List – I with List – II:

List – I                                    List – II

(Types of Hypothesis)             (Characteristics)

I. Phi coefficient                     1. To examine the differences among means for two or more population groups

II. F-test                                  2. To use the rank value of each case

III. Anova                               3. To measure the strength of association

IV. Kruskal- Wallis test          4. To do a statistical test of the equality of the variances of two populations

Codes:

I II III IV

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 3 1 4 2

Answers: (C)

59. The ability of followers to perform their jobs independently and to assume additional responsibilities in their desire to achieve success is called

(A) Maturity

(B) Authority

(C) Aggressiveness

(D) Assertiveness

Answers: (A)

60. All of the following are main activities in evaluating information except

(A) Acquiring information

(B) Comparing value with cost of information

(C) Selecting data to be evaluated

(D) Using information in decision making

Answers: (D)

61. The characteristics of the individual who should be hired for the job are indicated by the

(A) Job analysis

(B) Job description

(C) Job specification

(D) Job identification

Answers: (C)

62. Decentralizing an organisation is a structural change aimed at

(A) Reducing the cost of coordination

(B) Increasing the controllability of subunits

(C) Increasing motivation

(D) All of the above

Answers: (D)

63. The following statement concerning the grapevine is not correct?

(A) Grapevine generally is irregularly used in organizations.

(B) A grapevine can and often does generate harmful rumours.

(C) The grapevine is used largely to serve the self-interests of the people within it.

(D) In time and with proper pressure, the grapevine can be eliminated.

Answers: (D)

64. Which of the following is not a fixed cost?

(A) Cost of maintenance

(B) Depreciation

(C) Rent

(D) Cost of labour

Answers: (D)

65. Total assets turnover is

(A) Cost of goods sold/ Average total assets

(B) Cost of goods sold/ Average fixed assets

(C) Cost of goods sold /Average capital employed

(D) Cost of goods sold/ Net working capital

Answers: (A)

66. Cash receipts and payments relating to future contracts, forward contracts, option contracts and swap contracts when the contracts are held for dealing or trading purpose is considered to be an example of

(A) Cash flow from operating activities

(B) Cash flow from financing activities

(C) Cash flow from investing activities

(D) None of the above

Answers: (A)

67. Profitability in relation to investments is not measured by

(A) Return assets

(B) Return on capital employed

(C) Return on shareholder’s equity

(D) Expenses ratio

Answers: (D)

68. India is a member of the Executive Council of UNWTO continuously since how many years?

(A) 15

(B) 17

(C) 18

(D) 19

Answers: (D)

69. The Ministry of Tourism is according high priority to the development of tourism related infrastructure for which external loan assistance is provided by the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) for the development of

I. Ajanta-Ellora

II. Uttar Pradesh Buddhist circuit

III. Bihar Buddhist circuit

IV. Nagarjunkonda-Amravati

Codes:

(A) I is correct.

(B) I & II is correct.

(C) I and III are correct.

(D) All are correct.

Answers: (B)

70. Visa on arrival scheme on India is not extended to the citizens of which country?

(A) Finland

(B) Japan

(C) Cambodia

(D) Kazakhstan

Answers: (D)

Read the passage below and answer the questions from (71 – 75):

The online travel company has brought about remarkable changes in the travel trade business in the last one decade. Both online travel agents and the users of travel services are being benefited, resulting in many traditional travel companies moving to on-line portal to reach out the mass markets. In the cutthroat competition, majority of them have not even reached the break-even point due to the more bargaining power of customers and principal service providers. Barring a selected few on-line travel companies other best performers are finding difficult to overcome the chronic problems of making customer satisfied by adopting pricing and cost strategies.

Under this circumstance, XYZ consultant was appointed to prepare a research report on the problems that largely affected the on-line travel companies to reach at break-even point. The consulting firm submitted the report after making both qualitative and quantitative research studies. The study included well-structured open ended and close-ended questions along with demographic and independent statements pertaining to the research problems. The consulting firm used the hypothesis to test the differences between the users and non-users of services; lower-middle-higher income group; educated-non-educated, public private jobs; business-leisure travel; budget-high-end spenders.

The questionnaire also contained ordinal scale with likert type to elicit opinions from a sample of 5000 respondents from 20 cities comprising big metro cities. The consultant submitted the report with many suggestions.

71. The problem for which the consultant was appointed includes one of the following:

(A) More bargaining power

(B) Reaching larger market

(C) Break-even point

(D) All the above

Answers: (D)

72. Which one of the following research method was adopted in the first stage to explore the problem?

(A) Quantitative research

(B) Qualitative research

(C) Descriptive research

(D) All the above

Answers: (B)

73. Which one of the hypothesis test is appropriate for the users and no-users of service?

(A) ‘T’ Test

(B) ANOVA Test

(C) MANOVA Test

(D) Friedman Rank Test

Answers: (A)

74. Which one of the appropriate analysis may be used to draw logical conclusion of the statement type question in likert scale?

(A) Reliability Analysis

(B) Standard Analysis

(C) Factor Analysis

(D) Trend Analysis

Answers: (C)

75. Which one of the following is the standard level of testing the significance of hypothesis test?

(A) 0.10

(B) 0.20

(C) 0.05

(D) 0.01

Answers: (C)

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Year Wise Solved UGC NET Tourism Administration And Management Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers

The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Tourism Administration and Management was of descriptive type till December 2011.

Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.

So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.

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UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November

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UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December

UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June

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UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December

UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September

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UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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